Last Play of the Game Question

[WWUmp]

Originally Posted by starman

I think I did a bad job of wording my orignal question. How about this....

Bases Loaded, bottom of the last inning, tie game. OBR rules. Batter hits a ground ball to 3B. Defense turns what appears to be a 5-4 double play. However, the batter and runner on third are very fast. The run scores and the batter tags first before the out is recorded at 2B.

My interp of 4.09b is that the game was over before the out at second. The runs scores and the game is over. If the same thing had happened in the first inning, no runs scores. Am I wrong?

My understanding of 4.09(b), "...the umpire shall not declare the game ended until the runner forced to advance from third has touched home base and the batter-runner has touched first base," only applies to game ending situations when the defense really has no chance at preventing the winning run from scoring.

For example, the defense won't be able to prevent a BB with bases loaded from scoring the winning run, or prevent a HB with bases loaded from scoring the winning run, or prevent a HR with bases loaded from scoring the winning run as long as (as worded in 4.09(b)) R3 and BR advance and touch home plate and 1B. In these game ending situations, 4.09(b) does not require R1 or R2 to advance and touch the next base.

But starman's fact pattern does not describe a game ending situation. Therefore, 4.09(b) does not apply. The "exception" in 4.09(a) applies which states "...A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made... by any runner being forced out..." I don't think this is controversial. It's clear to me that the defense prevented the run from scoring (under 4.09(a)) by executing the double play (explained in starman's facts) to end the 1/2 inning and the game continues.