Interference?

[zm1283]

Originally Posted by thumpferee

8.2.g states..If a fair ball touches a base runner in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed all infielders, other than the pitcher, the ball is dead, the runner is out and the batter-runner is awarded first base

The way I am interpreting this is, once the ball touches F3 as in the OP, the ball is live and in play. If the ball had passed F3 and F2 was able to make a play, INT. And notice, other than the pitcher. So if the batted ball is touched by the pitcher and hits the runner, INT IF it has not passed all fielders and they could make a play.

So, for the OP,

MLB-NO
NCAA-NO
NFHS-YES(go figure)

You are interpreting it wrong. Once the ball touches a fielder, it can hit a runner and you play it.

You need to separate this rule from the rule about the ball passing a fielder then hitting a runner. They are different.

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

1. Batted ball touches a fielder (including the pitcher), then touches a runner - INT only if intentional (another fielder having or not having a play is irrelevant).

2. Batted ball passes by or through a fielder (other than the pitcher) untouched then touches runner - INT only if intentional and/or another fielder has a play.

In OBR, the ball must pass directly by or through the fielder for the runner to be potentially immune from INT. FED and NCAA are more lenient (the ball passing the fielder is good enough). Other than that, all codes agree.

This is right on.