Interference?

[dash_riprock]

1. Batted ball touches a fielder (including the pitcher), then touches a runner - INT only if intentional (another fielder having or not having a play is irrelevant).

2. Batted ball passes by or through a fielder (other than the pitcher) untouched then touches runner - INT only if intentional and/or another fielder has a play.

In OBR, the ball must pass directly by or through the fielder for the runner to be potentially immune from INT. FED and NCAA are more lenient (the ball passing the fielder is good enough). Other than that, all codes agree.

[SAump]

Also a runner must attempt to avoid a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball, even if the ball was deflected by another fielder.

It is alive and in play despite the fact that another infielder may be in position to field the ball.

This is not the case if a fielder is making a play on the ball! The runner must avoid the fielder. If the runner interferes with the fielder making a play, the runner is declared out.

Otherwise, the ball is still live and in play.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by SAump

Also a runner must attempt to avoid a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball, even if the ball was deflected by another fielder.

Incorrect. For correct answer, see all the other posts in thread.

*Edited to say: I got it wrong. You had it right S.A. My apologies.*

[Matt]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

Incorrect. For correct answer, see all the other posts in thread.

That actually is correct for OBR, per MLBUM 6.4.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Matt

That actually is correct for OBR, per MLBUM 6.4.

Yes, you are right. Thank you. He does have to avoid the fielder in either case.

[zm1283]

Originally Posted by thumpferee

8.2.g states..If a fair ball touches a base runner in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed all infielders, other than the pitcher, the ball is dead, the runner is out and the batter-runner is awarded first base

The way I am interpreting this is, once the ball touches F3 as in the OP, the ball is live and in play. If the ball had passed F3 and F2 was able to make a play, INT. And notice, other than the pitcher. So if the batted ball is touched by the pitcher and hits the runner, INT IF it has not passed all fielders and they could make a play.

So, for the OP,

MLB-NO
NCAA-NO
NFHS-YES(go figure)

You are interpreting it wrong. Once the ball touches a fielder, it can hit a runner and you play it.

You need to separate this rule from the rule about the ball passing a fielder then hitting a runner. They are different.

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

1. Batted ball touches a fielder (including the pitcher), then touches a runner - INT only if intentional (another fielder having or not having a play is irrelevant).

2. Batted ball passes by or through a fielder (other than the pitcher) untouched then touches runner - INT only if intentional and/or another fielder has a play.

In OBR, the ball must pass directly by or through the fielder for the runner to be potentially immune from INT. FED and NCAA are more lenient (the ball passing the fielder is good enough). Other than that, all codes agree.

This is right on.

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by sandiegosteve

*edited to say: I got it wrong.

big time!

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

big time!

Thanks for piling on.

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

Thanks for piling on.

I was wondering where you were going with that.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

I was wondering where you were going with that.

I drove it right into the ditch.