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Old Thu Apr 28, 2005, 04:11pm
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Are there any differences regarding runner int. versus umpire interference in the following example?

R2 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball, this is interference on R2.

U3 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball. Is this also umpire interference or is the rule different when it applies to umpires?

Thanks.
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2005, 07:00pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jay R
Are there any differences regarding runner int. versus umpire interference in the following example?

R2 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball, this is interference on R2.

U3 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball. Is this also umpire interference or is the rule different when it applies to umpires?

Thanks.
Yes, interference on the runner.

No interference on the umpire because the batted ball merely has to pass an infielder, other infielders are not considered here.
mick
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