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Thanks for the clarification. The runner hitting the ball was not intentional, not sure he could have done it on purpose if he wanted to.
Seems strange to award the batter first in this situation because the play was completed. I can see how it could go differently and I would want to argue that it is a dead ball. The ball again hits the runner unintentionally and goes into the outfield allowing the batter to advance to second or third, if I were on defense I would be ticked.
Why could this not be handled like a balk, delayed dead ball with the offense given the option. Balk but the pitch is made, ball is hit out of the park, play is accepted. Hell maybe that isn't correct either.
Thanks
Easygoer
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