NCAA Test Question

[Umpmazza]

Originally Posted by UmpTTS43

This is a question from the NCAA test. The NCAA OBS rule is now the same as OBR. Let me know what you think and why. I believe there is no correct answer.

R1, R3, no outs. R1 is stealing and gets caught in a rundown and is obstructed. After obstruction has been called on F4, R3 is thrown out at the plate.

a. R1 is returned to first base and R3 is awarded home.
b. Award R1 third base on the obstruction.
c. R3 is awarded home since he was advancing to the plate when obstruction was called and R1 is awarded second base.
d. The out on R3 stands

Take each play as it goes..

R1 is in a rundown, and gets Obstructed? That is considered a play on a runner, which makes the ball "Dead" and since R3 had not advanced to his next base he is sent back to his base unless he was forced, and in this play R3 was not forced.. Since R1 is awarded 1 base from his last legally touched base R1 would be sent to 2nd. and the same for R3 he gets sent back to his last legally touched base which is 3rd... So really there is no correct answer here.. If you want I can ask to the Pro guys here at school?

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Umpmazza

Take each play as it goes..

R1 is in a rundown, and gets Obstructed? That is considered a play on a runner, which makes the ball "Dead" and since R3 had not advanced to his next base he is sent back to his base unless he was forced, and in this play R3 was not forced..

The placement of R3 is at the discretion of the umpire.

[Umpmazza]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

The placement of R3 is at the discretion of the umpire.

well actually it is not.. we just went over all this at Harry's.. and had a question very similar to this play..

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Umpmazza

well actually it is not.. we just went over all this at Harry's.. and had a question very similar to this play..

"All runners shall be awarded the bases they would have reached had there been no obstruction." That isn't umpire discretion?

[DG]

I don't see a correct answer. Obstructed runner being played upon advances one base, ball is dead and all other runners are awarded the base they would have achieved, absent the dead ball. Since R3 was thrown out at home it is not likely he would have achieved home so he should not be awarded home, he should be returned to 3b since the ball was dead when the out was made. C is closest answer but don't seem right to me.

Can't see an out after a dead ball, and hard to see R3 awarded home since he can't reasonably be expected to have achieved it absent the obstruction. I am assuming that R3 did not pull up and stop running when type 1 obstruction was called and that was reason for him being thrown out, in which case C is surely correct.

In any event C is best answer of the ones provided.

[Durham]

Originally Posted by DG

I don't see a correct answer. Obstructed runner being played upon advances one base, ball is dead and all other runners are awarded the base they would have achieved, absent the dead ball. Since R3 was thrown out at home it is not likely he would have achieved home so he should not be awarded home, he should be returned to 3b since the ball was dead when the out was made. C is closest answer but don't seem right to me.

Can't see an out after a dead ball, and hard to see R3 awarded home since he can't reasonably be expected to have achieved it absent the obstruction. I am assuming that R3 did not pull up and stop running when type 1 obstruction was called and that was reason for him being thrown out, in which case C is surely correct.

In any event C is best answer of the ones provided.

This is a HTBT type of play, but imagine this. R1 is obstructed and tagged out, this then allows the fielder to throw home and get R3 before he can score. I am not going to assume that he would have scored, but if he is about half way when obs occurs, I am gonna score him based on common sense and fair play. Who screwed up? I am not gonna then bail them out on anything where the offense had a chance to score. The OP doesn't tell us how close the play was at the plate. I also want to know why it wasn't killed when type 1 took place.

[TussAgee11]

It seems test writers get wacky scenarios in their head which evaluate the test takers' ability to turn words into situations on the field and infer things rather than just test rules knowledge and application. This is one of them.

I'd answer (c) and wait for TTS to call BS on the question during the review session.

All you need to know is that when a play is being made on an OBS runner, the ball is dead immediately. That runner is awarded the next base automatically, and more if in the umpire's judgment he would have achieved them. All other runners are placed where they would have been had OBS not occurred, in the umpire's judgment. They may advance automatically as well if forced by the obstructed runner's advancement.

[Umpmazza]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

"All runners shall be awarded the bases they would have reached had there been no obstruction." That isn't umpire discretion?

yes in type "B" obstruction.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Umpmazza

yes in type "B" obstruction.

It also applies in Type A obstruction -- to all the runners who weren't obstructed, and to the obstructed runner if the award is beyond the one base minimum.