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My take on this would be the run would count either way.
My reasoning: You have one out already, considering the check swing would be out number two, base runners do a double steal, throw to second goes wild, R1 touchs home before R2 is tagged out at third for out number three. Run counts. ~OR~ You have one out already, considering check swing not an out yet, base runners do a double steal, throw to second goes wild, R1 touchs home before R2 is tagged out at third for out number two and the check swing is appealed for out number three. Run counts. In both cases neither R1 or R2 were forced to advance on the play so count the run as it was not a force play. Now had R2 been tagged out Before R1 touchs home, then I would not have a run in either senerio. Does this make sense to you guys? Am I correct in my reasoning? |
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Under this scenario, the third out is made by the batter before he reaches first, so no run can score.
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I just need to know WHICH out does the swing appeal count as, the second (which is when the K happened) or the third (when it was called). If it is considered the second out, then we have a timing play. If it is the third then we don't have a timing play and no runs can score regardless.
It just seems that this appeal is different from a "normal" appeal of say a missed base. In a check-swing appeal the non-primary umpire is changing the call of the covering umpire, in essence. In a normal appeal the calling umpire is simply holding his call until asked for it. |
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I don't understand. If the strike is called immediately on the swing, the strikeout is the second out and the run scores since the third out was a time play. But if the strike is called on appeal, the strikeout becomes the third out and the run doesn't score.
Is this "second out becomes the third out" principle covered in one of the usual reference books (J/R, BRD)? I can't find it.
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! |
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It just seems that this appeal is different from a "normal" appeal of say a missed base.
My thinking also. R2, R1, one out. Batter hits a double but misses 1B. R2 and R1 score, but R1 missed 3B. Regardless of who missed a base first, if the defense appeals R1's miss of 3B and then the BR's miss of 1B, the run is nullified. But if they appeal in reverse order, the run counts. But that's because on a missed base, you're not out until you're called out on appeal. With a strikeout, I would say you're out when you struck out, not after the umpires talk it over and decide you struck out. But that's just my own logic, which isn't always the same as the rulesmakers'.
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! |
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If you're invoking 4.09, that rule refers to a batter-runner and not to a batter.
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celebur is correct... however, another scenario illustrates where this sort of "appeal" is not applicable - it's not really an appeal as much as it is asking partner for help on a call.
R2, R3, 1 out. R2 and R3 stealing, Batter bunts. F1 fields and throws badly to first. BU is straightlined on a swipe tag, and rules safe. F3 fires home getting R2 trying to score as well... 2 outs. Coach then asks time to "appeal" asking BU to see if PU saw the swipe tag. PU did. BU rules BR out for the "third" out. But since the out truly occurred at the time of the tag, and was only ANNOUNCED after the other out, the BR was really the 2nd out - the run scores. Similar logic applies to the OP. If BU rules a swing, the out ACTUALLY occurred way back when he swung, even though the announcement of that out was much later. BU is 2nd out in the OP. Run counts.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I agree with the consensus, I have the batter as the 2nd out. Score the run.
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Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit there. - Will Rogers |
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