Timing Play

[BigGref]

Can someone refresh my memory about when the timing rule applies and how and when it applies. Thanks!!

[John Robertson]

A timing play determines whether or not a run scores when the third out is not made on a force play or by the batter being retired before reaching fist base safely. For example, there's a runner on third base with two outs. Batter gets a base hit but is out trying to stretch it into a double. Assuming the runner from third crossed home plate before the batter-runner was put out at second base, the run would count because he scored before the third out was made. Clear?

[cowbyfan1]

There are a number of situations where you could have a timing play. Generally they are with 2 outs but you could literally have one with 1 or no outs. Most common is with 2 outs and runner on 2nd or 2nd and 1st.

[Matthew F]

You have a possible timing play when your 3rd out is not a force out - if a run scores before that 3rd out, it counts (barring certain appeals).

[civilcoach]

Here's my sitch, R1 and R3, 2 outs. Ground ball to F4, R1 stops in the baseline and is tagged out by F4 after R3 crosses home plate. Does the run count, or is it still considered a force?

[John Robertson]

Matthew makes a good point. Some appeals can make a timing play confusing. Here's an example: There are two outs and a runner at second base. The batter hits a home run, but the runner ahead of him misses third base. A proper appeal is made at third base. The lead runner is called out. No runs would score because a run cannot score if the runner ahead of him makes the third out. In this case, the appeal on the missed base takes precedence over the "timing play."

[John Robertson]

Civilcoach, the run does not count. It is still considered a force play even though a tag was made. The runner on first was forced to vacate his base because the batter became a baserunner. Whether the runner from first was tagged out or put out by the fielder by touching second base, it is still a force play. The run does not count. Good question, though!

[Edited by John Robertson on Jun 3rd, 2005 at 11:16 AM]

[Tim C]

Keeping the answer simple: John has nailed your answer coach.

More interestingly J/R has a published ruling dealing with this specific play that makes it "possible" to score a run when R1 never legally attains second base.

I think that referencing here should be considered a "special consideration" as J/R's ruling is controversial and may not be universally accepted.

[UmpJM]

In case anyone is interested, the J/R ruling that Tim refers to was recently discussed under a similar thread which can be found at this link:

http://www.officialforum.com/thread/20656

JM

Does anyone besides my association use the "timing play signal" between umpires? It consists of the PU and BU mirroring a signal that looks as each is asking the other "what time is it?" by pointing to where their watch would be. The only 2 situations that this is used in around here are R1 and R3 or R2 with 2 out.

[akalsey]

This was discussed ad nauseum in another thread. Most experienced umps said something to the effect of "why the heck would you need to?" Do you really need to remind your partner that there's a potential for a timing play?

If Outs+Runners>=4 there's ALWAYS a possibility (however remote) of a timing play.

Good point about the runners, sorry for repeating!

[TBBlue]

Last night-16-18Y/O league. R3, 2 outs. Single to CF. R3 walks home, CF boots ball, B/R goes for 2. I was sliding down 3b line to observe play but R3 was taking so long, I had to get back to line up the play with the touch. Had F8 made a good throw, I would have had an out on B/R before R3 crossed plate.

[John Robertson]

This last example proves what Akalsey said: There's always the potential for a timing play when there are runners on base with two out.