Running lane violation?

[Paul L]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

I think you may be right. I looked at it again and I think he may have got back within in the lane in time.

But, as an academic exericise, let's say he did not.

Would you consider a lane violation in that case - even if the ball doesn't hit the batter-runner?

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

No, no interference because F3 caught the ball.

No interference on an avoid-collision theory, because that theory is not an accepted interpretation, as pointed out by Mr. Umpire back in post #12. Similar to a F6 who backs off a ground ball to avoid contact with a R2.

No neighborhood-play out call because the throw caused the pulled foot.

But I thought, contrary to Mr. Umpire, that the neighborhood-play theory could apply at first base, assuming a high-quality throw, in order to avoid F3's foot getting stepped on by BR. At the risk of hijacking the thread, can I get some yays or nays on this?