Obstruction ignored?

[mj]

Runner on first. Batter hits one in the gap. First baseman and batter/runner make contact as he rounds first on the way to second. Batter/runner ends up on second and R1 stops at third.

Is the obstruction by the first baseman ignored because the batter/runner achieved the base he was attempting to acquire?

Thanks

[SethPDX]

Originally Posted by mj

Runner on first. Batter hits one in the gap. First baseman and batter/runner make contact as he rounds first on the way to second. Batter/runner ends up on second and R1 stops at third.

Is the obstruction by the first baseman ignored because the batter/runner achieved the base he was attempting to acquire?

Thanks

In this type of obstruction, where it sounds like he was obstructed after touching 1B and no play was being made on him, at the end of the playing action the umpire makes any base awards necessary to nullify the obstruction. The award, if any, is not so much the base the runner was trying for, it's the base the umpire judges he would have reached if there was no obstruction. If, in this play, the umpire judged the batter would have made 2B without the obstruction, the obstruction is ignored.

I'm referring here to OBR-based rules. I think the Fed (high school) rule is slightly different.

Okay, I took my shot; everyone else can start picking this apart.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by SethPDX

In this type of obstruction, where it sounds like he was obstructed after touching 1B and no play was being made on him, at the end of the playing action the umpire makes any base awards necessary to nullify the obstruction. The award, if any, is not so much the base the runner was trying for, it's the base the umpire judges he would have reached if there was no obstruction. If, in this play, the umpire judged the batter would have made 2B without the obstruction, the obstruction is ignored.

I'm referring here to OBR-based rules. I think the Fed (high school) rule is slightly different.

Okay, I took my shot; everyone else can start picking this apart.

Pretty much what I would have said. If the umpire has any inkling that the BR could have possibly made it to 3rd, then he should award R1 home and the BR 3rd. It's a judgment call, and you want to err on the side of the offended team.

[umpjong]

Technically you are still acknowledging the obstruction, but you in this case acknowledge that the runner achieved the base you felt he was entitled to...

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by SethPDX

I'm referring here to OBR-based rules. I think the Fed (high school) rule is slightly different.

In FED, all obstruction is "Type-B," or delayed dead ball (as OBR would also have in this case). Also, all OBS awards the obstructed runner at least his advance base, or more if needed to nullify the obstruction.

In this case, if you judged that the runner would have acquired 2B (which was also his advance base), no additional award would be appropriate under FED rules.

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by mj

Runner on first. Batter hits one in the gap. First baseman and batter/runner make contact as he rounds first on the way to second. Batter/runner ends up on second and R1 stops at third.

Is the obstruction by the first baseman ignored because the batter/runner achieved the base he was attempting to acquire?

Thanks

There should have been an obstruction call when the BR made contact with F3 ("That's Obstruction!"). That being said, R1 stopped at 3rd so the BR could go no further than 2nd. The obstruction is then ignored. If, however, the BR stopped and returned to 1st, the award would be 2nd base only (R1 at 3rd, remember?).

If there is obstruction on a following runner, the position of the lead runner may end up determining where the obstructed runner will be placed.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

There should have been an obstruction call when the BR made contact with F3 ("That's Obstruction!"). That being said, R1 stopped at 3rd so the BR could go no further than 2nd. The obstruction is then ignored. If, however, the BR stopped and returned to 1st, the award would be 2nd base only (R1 at 3rd, remember?).

If there is obstruction on a following runner, the position of the lead runner may end up determining where the obstructed runner will be placed.

True, but the obstructed runner can also "force" an advance runner to the next base.

[Paul L]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

True, but the obstructed runner can also "force" an advance runner to the next base.

I don't understand. Example, please?

[Ump Rube]

I think what Bob is saying is that if you feel a B/R need be awarded 2B on the play and R2 is there already, you can award him 3B to "open" up that base to award the B/R 2B.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Ump Rube

I think what Bob is saying is that if you feel a B/R need be awarded 2B on the play and R2 is there already, you can award him 3B to "open" up that base to award the B/R 2B.

That's two chicken dinners!!! Now knock that off!!!

[Paul L]

Originally Posted by Ump Rube

I think what Bob is saying is that if you feel a B/R need be awarded 2B on the play and R2 is there already, you can award him 3B to "open" up that base to award the B/R 2B.

That's where I'm confused. How can I think an obstructed BR would have attained second base when a preceding unobstructed runner is camped out there?

[bossman72]

Originally Posted by Paul L

I don't understand. Example, please?

Bases loaded. F1 tries to pick off R2 at 2nd. Both F6 and F4 go to cover second base. While R2 is going back to 2nd, he is obstructed by F6. F4 applies the tag.

Obstruction on F6. R2 awarded third. R3 forced home.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by bossman72

Bases loaded. F1 tries to pick off R2 at 2nd. Both F6 and F4 go to cover second base. While R2 is going back to 2nd, he is obstructed by F6. F4 applies the tag.

Obstruction on F6. R2 awarded third. R3 forced home.

Just to be clear: this would happen ONLY for FED. In OBR (and codes based on it), R2 would be awarded 2B, the base to which he was returning.