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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Apr 29, 2009, 04:02pm
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
Wow, I never thought of that! Good to know.

There's a reason to having never thought of it. It's wrong.
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Old Wed Apr 29, 2009, 11:29pm
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Originally Posted by MrUmpire View Post
There's a reason to having never thought of it. It's wrong.
In our area, it isn't wrong. Only players listed on the lineup at the time of protest, if it is upheld, will be permitted to participate in the continuation of said protested game.
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Old Wed Apr 29, 2009, 11:57pm
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Originally Posted by w_sohl View Post
In our area, it isn't wrong. Only players listed on the lineup at the time of protest, if it is upheld, will be permitted to participate in the continuation of said protested game.

Then that's how you should have portrayed it, as a local abberation.
Last edited by MrUmpire; Thu Apr 30, 2009 at 09:32am.
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Old Thu Apr 30, 2009, 04:59am
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Originally Posted by w_sohl View Post
In our area, it isn't wrong. Only players listed on the lineup at the time of protest, if it is upheld, will be permitted to participate in the continuation of said protested game.


Are you saying that the CIF has a rule that supersedes the NFHS rule? Or are you saying that umpires in your area will not allow it?

MTD, Sr.
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Old Thu Apr 30, 2009, 11:44pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. View Post
Are you saying that the CIF has a rule that supersedes the NFHS rule? Or are you saying that umpires in your area will not allow it?

MTD, Sr.
No, I'm saying that is what the powers that be in our association have told us on protests. It was news to me when I heard it this year. Made some sense to me, but seems like it would be difficult to enforce unless the other coach took care of it.
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Old Fri May 01, 2009, 03:22pm
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Originally Posted by w_sohl View Post
No, I'm saying that is what the powers that be in our association have told us on protests. It was news to me when I heard it this year. Made some sense to me, but seems like it would be difficult to enforce unless the other coach took care of it.

Since when does an umpires' association have the right to issue a ruling that is a direct violaiton of the rules code they are required to uphold?

MTD, Sr.
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Sat May 02, 2009, 02:59am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. View Post
Since when does an umpires' association have the right to issue a ruling that is a direct violaiton of the rules code they are required to uphold?

MTD, Sr.
This is just what we were told. Not sure if it is CIF or what, just what was said in the meeting.
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