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It also says "and is obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base". In this situation "F3 breaks toward the bag (timing play) and F1 throws the ball to him five feet away from 1B."
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5 feet is pretty near the effin bag. I agree with those that have "no balk" on the play as described.
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Was this it?
Quote:
Pete Booth
__________________
Peter M. Booth |
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First off, I will order the Evans video as recommended.
Second, I want to clarify this. Can F1 throw to F3 in any position, from the rubber, if 1B is occupied? I was always taught that the throw needs to go directly to the bag in this situation. To clarify my initial post, F3's initial movement (two or three steps) was to 1B. He received the throw in a stationary position, no longer moving toward the bag. |
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Unsupported accusation.
I don't see any deleted posts in this thread. There was a thread where "flowerchild" made one of his usual asinine posts. Someone responded to it. Both were deleted. If that was mbyron and this thread, that explains it. |
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Quote:
__________________
Cheers, mb |
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Quote:
Moderating a forum always causes less anger and frustration than unaccountable censorship. You should try it. |
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Don't really see the problem with this play. It isn't a balk. See the Evans video. If F3 is breaking toward the bag and receives the ball 5 ft away he can easily apply a tag with the next step and in doing so is making a play. What is the problem?
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