What's the ruling?

[tWVU_Fan]

This play happened about 20 years ago in my son's Babe Ruth League game.
Situation: Tie game bottom of the 7th(final inning)1 out, bases loaded. Batter hits a fly to left which is caught for out #2. Everyone in the park sees the runner from 3rd leave early and he beats the throw to the plate with the winning run. The runner from 2nd advanced to 3rd base on the throw home. The coach yells at his team to stay on the field and he calls time, goes to the mound for a conference to tell the pitcher proper mechanics for an appeal play. The pitcher gets the ball, steps back off the rubber and the runner from 3rd breaks for home, the pitcher throws the ball to the catcher and the runner is tagged out. The ump calls game over. The coach is wanting to continue and make the appeal but the ump tells him it's too late.
What is the correct ruling??

[LDUB]

Babe Ruth uses OBR and therefore if the defense makes a play then they may no longer make an appeal, even if the play is initiated by the offense. Other rule sets would be different.

[kylejt]

How about if the pitcher tossed it to the catcher, who walked it up the line toward third, tagged the runner on the way by, and tossed it to third for the appeal. Would that be allowed?

[LDUB]

Originally Posted by kylejt

How about if the pitcher tossed it to the catcher, who walked it up the line toward third, tagged the runner on the way by, and tossed it to third for the appeal. Would that be allowed?

Of course that is allowed. If you are asking would an appeal on R3 be allowed afterwards, then no it would not. Someone else can quote Roder or Evans on what constitutes a play but it will say something about attempting to put out a runner.

[johnnyg08]

you could've just told your player to throw it to F5 and live ball appeal. the coach having to explain how to do the appeal is often misunderstood...if the play is still live.

[DG]

Throw the ball directly to 3B and have F5 tell the ump he is appealing runner leaving early. Don't even have to tell him if the appeal is obvious.

I had a District championship game end with a win once when a fly ball was caught in CF for 2nd out, runner on 2b left early and F8 threw directly to F6 at the bag. It was an obvious appeal.

[PeteBooth]

I am having trouble with this (what else is new)

As soon as R3 crossed the plate the game is OVER. It was the last inning game tied and R3 crossed the plate. The only purpose for the defense taking the Field again or staying on the field, would be to appeal R3 otherwise the defense might just as well line-up and shake hands.

It makes absolutely no sense.

As others mentioned if the defense played on R2 they lose their right to appeal. In fact a case could be made that as soon as the umpire saw F1 throw to F2 to retire the NEW R3, he could have called TIME and simply said - Game over.

In FED the point would be moot because the coach can make a dead ball appeal. Also, if the offense initiates the 'action" the defense does not lose their right to appeal.

All in all I have no idea why the defense would even bother with R2 now on third base as he means absolutely nothing.

Pete Booth

[Matt]

Originally Posted by PeteBooth

I am having trouble with this (what else is new)

As soon as R3 crossed the plate the game is OVER. It was the last inning game tied and R3 crossed the plate. The only purpose for the defense taking the Field again or staying on the field, would be to appeal R3 otherwise the defense might just as well line-up and shake hands.

It makes absolutely no sense.

As others mentioned if the defense played on R2 they lose their right to appeal. In fact a case could be made that as soon as the umpire saw F1 throw to F2 to retire the NEW R3, he could have called TIME and simply said - Game over.

In FED the point would be moot because the coach can make a dead ball appeal. Also, if the offense initiates the 'action" the defense does not lose their right to appeal.

All in all I have no idea why the defense would even bother with R2 now on third base as he means absolutely nothing.

Pete Booth

Okay, then...

If the game is over, excepting appeal, is R2 still R2? After all, he has no ability to legally run bases, and cannot be put out.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Matt

Okay, then...

If the game is over, excepting appeal, is R2 still R2? After all, he has no ability to legally run bases, and cannot be put out.

But he can be DECLARED out for a base-running infraction.

And, I'm not sure your original premise is valid anyway:

Play: Tie game, bottom of the last, 2 outs, R3. B4 grouonds to the hole at short. In order: R3 crosses the plate, then F6 throws to F3 who steps on first before B4 reaches first. If the game ends as soon as R3 touches home, then B4 can't be put out and the run counts.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Matt

Okay, then...

If the game is over, excepting appeal, is R2 still R2? After all, he has no ability to legally run bases, and cannot be put out.

R2 is irrelevant, but he's still R2. He can't be put out (there are already 3 outs and he can't be the advantageous 4th out), and he can't score, but he can still be played on.

[MichaelVA2000]

Originally Posted by tWVU_Fan

This play happened about 20 years ago in my son's Babe Ruth League game.

Wow 20 years ago. Because the Statute of Limitations has run out, there is no ruling on this play. Your long term memory for details does impress me though.