Spin off of our OBS/INT discussion.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

But 7.08 h in OBR does not make that unobstructed stipulation...

True, but OBR's language includes awarding bases so as to "nullify the act of obstruction."

[TussAgee11]

So it is possible to to have the #4 batter score and the #3 batter standing on 3rd if you only protected him to third.

This is what I'm getting at.

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

So it is possible to to have the #4 batter score and the #3 batter standing on 3rd if you only protected him to third.

This is what I'm getting at.

If you have obstruction on a runner rounding third, and the one right behind him scores, you would be awarding home anyways wouldn't you?

How would this situation be handled? Announcement of "That's obstruction!" and let the play continue so that we now have the runners out of order on the basepaths or should the base runners have to correct this as soon as possible?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

So it is possible to to have the #4 batter score and the #3 batter standing on 3rd if you only protected him to third.

This is what I'm getting at.

No. If the #4 batter scores then your protection of the #3 batter should have been to home.

[TussAgee11]

OK let me rewrite the sitch in more detail and change some things so perhaps my point will get across. It is possible that my point has already gotten across, and I don't know it, but hear me out.

R1. BR hits fly ball to RF which appears as though it will be caught. R1 stays close to bag. BR closes in on him. RF misplays the ball and it lands over his head. Both R1 and BR head for 2B. R1 is obstucted by F6 as he rounds 2nd. This causes BR to pass and continue to 3rd. At this point the ball was coming back into the infield, and you feel the protection that will nullify the act of OBS is R1 to 3rd.

BR is now ahead of R1. There is a play at 3rd and the ball squirts away from F5.

BR advances home. R1 is still standing on 2nd. Play is over.

R1 to 3rd on your OBS. BR's run is good.

Is this correct?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

OK let me rewrite the sitch in more detail and change some things so perhaps my point will get across. It is possible that my point has already gotten across, and I don't know it, but hear me out.

R1. BR hits fly ball to RF which appears as though it will be caught. R1 stays close to bag. BR closes in on him. RF misplays the ball and it lands over his head. Both R1 and BR head for 2B. R1 is obstucted by F6 as he rounds 2nd. This causes BR to pass and continue to 3rd. At this point the ball was coming back into the infield, and you feel the protection that will nullify the act of OBS is R1 to 3rd.

BR is now ahead of R1. There is a play at 3rd and the ball squirts away from F5.

BR advances home. R1 is still standing on 2nd. Play is over.

R1 to 3rd on your OBS. BR's run is good.

Is this correct?

Replay the play in your mind, but without the obstruction. What would have happened? (It's impossible for me to tell from your post). Do that. (and, in FED be sure R1 is awarded at least third).

[TussAgee11]

Perhaps than Bob my mind is working in its non existent 6th gear when all I really need is neutral.

In FED, since R1 must be given 3rd, than I guess BR is forced into scoring??

In OBR, to simply nullify, if the OBS never happened, we would have had R1 at 3rd and BR at 2nd, in the correct order. We ignore the passing and then just switch them back to the way it would have been had no OBS occurred.

My head hurts.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

In FED, since R1 must be given 3rd, than I guess BR is forced into scoring??

How can BR score "in advance of" a runner previously on base? (Hint: He can't).