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Wed Sep 12, 2007, 02:36am
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Hey all,
Would any of you balk this scenario...why or why not... F1 gets ball after play is over. R1 no out, and gets a sign from the bench/F2 on the way to the rubber. F1 quickly goes through the motions and appears to be getting a sign, but is not. F1 then comes to a set and throws the pitch. Batter is ready, but barely. R1 is still trying to get his lead when the pitch is delivered. I would say no because the intent of the rule, preventing the quick pitch, is not broken since B2 was ready. LomUmp 
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