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Old Tue Apr 24, 2007, 08:30am
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Let's just say the answer they gave is 2 and I'm still not sure why.

Are you sure you got the question right? That type of question usually involves either (1) the runner from 1B missing 3B and the BR "scoring" behind him, where an appeal would then nullify the last 2 runs, and the first 2 runs would score, or (2) the runner from 1B missing 2B, where no runs would score because of the 3rd-out force.

In the play you cite, scoring only 2 on the BR missing 2B makes no sense whatsoever. Every code would score 3 runs on that play.
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