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Originally Posted by greymule
Let's just say the answer they gave is 2 and I'm still not sure why.
Are you sure you got the question right? That type of question usually involves either (1) the runner from 1B missing 3B and the BR "scoring" behind him, where an appeal would then nullify the last 2 runs, and the first 2 runs would score, or (2) the runner from 1B missing 2B, where no runs would score because of the 3rd-out force.
In the play you cite, scoring only 2 on the BR missing 2B makes no sense whatsoever. Every code would score 3 runs on that play.
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I've typed in the question exactly as written and I agree with you, those are the typical questions.
The clinician indicated that since it was second base that was missed only the first two runs would score because only the first two runners would have crossed home before the BR reached second. I said that it doesn't matter, this was a timing play and not a force so any runs that score before the third out call would count. However, again he insisted and the answer key he had said that only two runs scored. ???????