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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 01:09pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
I'll pay good money for a photo of a LH pitcher breaking the back plane of the rubber with his right knee while keeping his right foot in front of the rubber.
Garth,

How much?

Actually, you've already got one. Not just a photo, but full motion video. I mean it's a RHP doing it with his left knee, but the principle is exactly the same.

JM
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 01:09pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LMan
After you offered your POV and he rejects it, isn't this between him and the coach(es)? He's tossing himself under the bus here.

What else do you want to do about it during the game? Shout about it? Wrestle him like SDS wants to do whenever a partner shows up in white gloves after Labor Day?
Does nobody get that the original poster is the coach and he's talking about ignorant umpires, not his parnter and not other coaches?
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 01:10pm
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Obvioiusly, can't / couldn; take pictures while working - sounds a little "contortionistic", doesn't it? Actually, I'm not (and never was) a pitcher, but I am left handed. I can, without hurting myself, pull my right knee up and back (over the "rubber") while my foot stays in front of rubber. It's not that difficult. I've always thought that was a "learned" movement, meant to "disadvantage" the runner, but couldn't "balk" it by the current rule(s).
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  #19 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 01:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachJM
Garth,

How much?

Actually, you've already got one. Not just a photo, but full motion video. I mean it's a RHP doing it with his left knee, but the principle is exactly the same.

JM
You count that forced distorted body position? Not me. I want to see it in a game.
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  #20 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 01:27pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
Does nobody get that the original poster is the coach and he's talking about ignorant umpires, not his parnter and not other coaches?

****. I quit, see ya Monday. Maybe.
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  #21 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 03:17pm
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As already cited, you were told wrong. All codes agree, if the foot breaks the back edge of the rubber, he must go home, unless feinting or throwing to 2B. NCAA only requires the knee to break the back edge as JM stated.
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  #22 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 03:21pm
BigGuy
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
I'll pay good money for a photo of a LH pitcher breaking the back plane of the rubber with his right knee while keeping his right foot in front of the rubber.
Although he's a righty, you should see my son with his left foot. At 16 and almost 6'2" he can still twist like a pretzel.
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  #23 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 03:23pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by justanotherblue
As already cited, you were told wrong. All codes agree, if the foot breaks the back edge of the rubber, he must go home, unless feinting or throwing to 2B. NCAA only requires the knee to break the back edge as JM stated.
No. NCAA requires that any part of the stride leg/foot breaking the back plane commits the pitcher to home or second.
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  #24 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 03:25pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by justanotherblue
As already cited, you were told wrong. All codes agree, if the foot breaks the back edge of the rubber, he must go home, unless feinting or throwing to 2B. NCAA only requires the knee to break the back edge as JM stated.
In FED - ENTIRE foot must break plane of the back edge.

f. failing to pitch to the batter when the entire non-pivot foot passes behind the perpendicular plane of the back edge of the pitcher's plate, except when feinting or throwing to second base in an attempt to put out a runner.
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  #25 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 07:04pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LMan
Wrestle him like SDS wants to do whenever a partner shows up in white gloves after Labor Day?
Are you lookin' for a fight, buddy?
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  #26 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 07:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
No. NCAA requires that any part of the stride leg/foot breaking the back plane commits the pitcher to home or second.
Nope -- it's the entire foot or any part of the leg. 9-3.l
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  #27 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 08:14pm
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I was always taught in OBR that if any part of the free foot crosses the back plane of the rubber the pitcher was then commited to pitch (if not going to 2nd base). Are you guys saying that the entire Foot needs to be past the plane??
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  #28 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 08:58pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by 3appleshigh
I was always taught in OBR that if any part of the free foot crosses the back plane of the rubber the pitcher was then commited to pitch (if not going to 2nd base). Are you guys saying that the entire Foot needs to be past the plane??
8.05(a) Comment: If a lefthanded or righthanded pitcher swings his free foot past the back edge of the pitcher's rubber, he is required to pitch to the batter except to throw to second base on a pick-off-play.

The foot part is the same for FED, NCAA, and OBR. NCAA has the "any part of the stride leg" breaking the plane addition.

PBUC official interpretation: The prohibition against breaking the plane specifically applies only to the foot: "If the knee of the pitcher's free leg passes behind the back edge of the rubber but his foot does not, he may legally throw to first base with no violation." --[6.5b]
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  #29 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 09:07pm
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Steve,

Quote:
Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
The foot part is the same for FED, NCAA, and OBR. NCAA has the "any part of the stride leg" breaking the plane addition.
While I certainly agree about the knee, what do you make of the following from the MLBUM (my emphasis)?

Quote:
(c) When a pitcher swings any part of his free foot past the back edge of the pitcher's rubber, it is a balk if he does not pitch to the batter, unless he throws (or feints a throw) to second base on a pick-off play. (Note that this violation is in reference only to the pitcher's foot. If the knee of the pitcher's free leg passes behind the back edge of the rubber but his foot does not, he may legally throw to first base with no violation.)
Seems a little different from the "entire foot" language found in the FED rule.

JM
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  #30 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 13, 2007, 09:21pm
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Well, what I think is that it differs from what the rule book states. I didn't check MLBUM, only the BRD. Pure lazyness. Now I'm going to check what Evans has to say about it.
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