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Let's examine what you've written...calmy and lgoically. The runner, you say, can run outside the lane to avoid a fielder fielding the ball, right? So you figure that while he's out side the lane avoiding this fielder fielding the ball, he can be hit by the ball thrown by a fielder without it being interference. Question. If the fielder the runner is avoiding is fielding the ball, where did the ball come from that hit the runner? And, who threw it? Now, in case you're tempted to reply that this is the same fielder and the same ball and the fielder threw it after the runner passed him, then the runner really doesn't need to be out of the lane anymore to avoid the fielder, does he?
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GB Last edited by GarthB; Sun Mar 25, 2007 at 08:10pm. |
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I got a fever! And the only prescription.. is more cowbell! |
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(Sigh) You, know, I have to wonder why I'm stupid enough to keep trying. I can't believe anyone is that fargin' dense unless it's intentional. I had a class last year completely comprised of "alternative school" students and not one of them was as clueless or aggravating. Time to put Littleboyblue back on the list.
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GB |
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My God. Take a deep breath and re-read my post, s l o w l y.
If the runner/batter is running on either side of the lane to avoid the fielder fielding the ball, there is no ball to be thrown at him. There is only one ball in the game at a time. Get it yet? Please, think. How can someone throw a ball at him while he is avoiding the fielder fielding the ball???????????? If he ran outside or inside or freaking flew over and is now far enough past the fielder that the fielder can plunk him, then he no longer needs to be out of the running lane. Are you following this yet?
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GB Last edited by GarthB; Sun Mar 25, 2007 at 09:00pm. |
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GB |
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Good bye LittleBoyBlue.
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GB |
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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