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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 11:39am
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LETS SAY A1 IS INBOUNDING THE BALL AFTER A MADE SHOT FROM TEAM B. A1 PASSES THE BALL IN TO A2, A2 THEN CALLS A TIME OUT. THE QUESTION IS, AFTER THE TIME OUT AND A1 INBOUNDS THE BALL AGAIN AT THE BASELINE CAN HE RUN THE BASELINE AS BEFORE?

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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 11:43am
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Quote:
Originally posted by TPS2859
LETS SAY A1 IS INBOUNDING THE BALL AFTER A MADE SHOT FROM TEAM B. A1 PASSES THE BALL IN TO A2, A2 THEN CALLS A TIME OUT. THE QUESTION IS, AFTER THE TIME OUT AND A1 INBOUNDS THE BALL AGAIN AT THE BASELINE CAN HE RUN THE BASELINE AS BEFORE?

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Why are ya yelling?

Yes, he can run.
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 11:45am
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Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by TPS2859
LETS SAY A1 IS INBOUNDING THE BALL AFTER A MADE SHOT FROM TEAM B. A1 PASSES THE BALL IN TO A2, A2 THEN CALLS A TIME OUT.
Why are ya yelling?

Yes, he can run.
Once the ball is legally inbounded, if a TO is granted, the throw-in following the TO will be from a designated spot, no?
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 11:46am
Jerry Blum
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I would say that in this case they would not be able to run the baseline because the ball had already been inbounded. I will however tend to be lenient as far as where the ball was on a timeout if the coach is trying to call timeout after a made basket. That is if A scores and B wants a timeout I will be more likely to say they still had the ball out of bounds when the coach requested the timeout.

In your case though you say A2 calls the timeout after the ball was inbounded, in this case we definetely have a spot throwing after the timeout.
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 11:48am
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I would have to say a spot throw in as well, since it was legally inbounded.
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 12:00pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by TPS2859
LETS SAY A1 IS INBOUNDING THE BALL AFTER A MADE SHOT FROM TEAM B. A1 PASSES THE BALL IN TO A2, A2 THEN CALLS A TIME OUT.
Why are ya yelling?

Yes, he can run.
Once the ball is legally inbounded, if a TO is granted, the throw-in following the TO will be from a designated spot, no?
I assumed he was saying that A2 was OOB. Just read it too fast.

He was yelling so loud, I couldn't understand him.
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 12:00pm
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Question

Quote:
Originally posted by cmathews
I would have to say a spot throw in as well, since it was legally inbounded.
Would you inbound this on the endline (assuming TO was called when the ball was nearest the endline), or would it be beneficial to inbound this on the sideline, just to emphasize that we've got a spot throw-in?
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 12:37pm
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No, A-1 can't run then end line. Once ball was put into play and time-out granted. He loses the luxury to run the end line. Now if A-1 calls time-out before the throw-in then after the time-out A-1 may run the end line.
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Old Tue Jan 13, 2004, 12:39pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Back In The Saddle
Quote:
Originally posted by cmathews
I would have to say a spot throw in as well, since it was legally inbounded.
Would you inbound this on the endline (assuming TO was called when the ball was nearest the endline), or would it be beneficial to inbound this on the sideline, just to emphasize that we've got a spot throw-in?
Have the next throw-in at the spot closest to where the ball was when the TO was granted -- whether that's the endline or the sideline.

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