The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Softball

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 06, 2015, 07:45am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2007
Posts: 145
Interference by Retired Runner

NFHS Rules

With R1 on third base & R2 on first base and no outs, B3 hits a ground ball to F5. F5 throws to F4 to retire R2. R2 goes into second base standing up and contacts F4 who is positioned on the bag and is about to make a throw to first base.

Do you consider this a no-brainer interference call?
Does it matter whether or not F4 had a legitimate opportunity to throw out B3?
If you make the interference call, are you ruling out R1 or B3?
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 06, 2015, 08:26am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2008
Posts: 1,340
No I dont consider it a no brainer interference call. There is no requirement to slide. It may be interference, it may not be depending on the situation and umpires judgement.

There must be an available play to have interference. If the batter/runner had already touched 1st base, or was clearly going to beat any possible throw to 1st base there is no possible play.

If it is judged to be interference, then a retired runner has committed interference and the runner closest to home would be out also.
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 06, 2015, 01:41pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Woodstock, GA; Atlanta area
Posts: 2,822
Quote:
Originally Posted by bbsbvb83 View Post
NFHS Rules

With R1 on third base & R2 on first base and no outs, B3 hits a ground ball to F5. F5 throws to F4 to retire R2. R2 goes into second base standing up and contacts F4 who is positioned on the bag and is about to make a throw to first base.

Do you consider this a no-brainer interference call?
Not necessarily, since the runner is not required to slide, and is allowed (even expected) to attempt to beat the throw. However, just as she may not overslide to be a legal slide, her running through the base isn't a valid attempt to be safe, either. Contact alone is possibly legal, but it needs to be a case where she is clearly stopping at the base in her attempt to be safe after choosing to not slide.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bbsbvb83 View Post
Does it matter whether or not F4 had a legitimate opportunity to throw out B3?
As stated by RKBUmp, there has to be a "play" for there to be interference.

However, I am more leaning to any possibility of a play; at the instant the interference occurs, you don't know if B3 will fall down before reaching 1st, or if she will even fail to touch 1st with a possible live ball appeal available to the defense. I wouldn't be too quick to judge she would clearly beat the throw!!

Quote:
Originally Posted by bbsbvb83 View Post
If you make the interference call, are you ruling out R1 or B3?
Common misapplication of the rule. If R2 is already out when she interferes, it ALWAYS the runner closest to home that is out, R1 in this case. The only times you would rule B3 out is if 1) she is the only other runner, or 2) R2 interferes BEFORE she is out, with the obvious intent to stop a double play. This (#2 above) isn't R2 interfering AT the base, it's her obviously and intentionally interfering with the batted ball, the fielder fielding the batted ball, or the fielder throwing the batted ball to 2nd before the initial out is recorded.
__________________
Steve
ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF
Reply With Quote
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Wed Apr 08, 2015, 10:42pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2010
Posts: 1,240
Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve View Post
Not necessarily, since the runner is not required to slide, and is allowed (even expected) to attempt to beat the throw. However, just as she may not overslide to be a legal slide, her running through the base isn't a valid attempt to be safe, either. Contact alone is possibly legal, but it needs to be a case where she is clearly stopping at the base in her attempt to be safe after choosing to not slide.


As stated by RKBUmp, there has to be a "play" for there to be interference.

However, I am more leaning to any possibility of a play; at the instant the interference occurs, you don't know if B3 will fall down before reaching 1st, or if she will even fail to touch 1st with a possible live ball appeal available to the defense. I wouldn't be too quick to judge she would clearly beat the throw!!



Common misapplication of the rule. If R2 is already out when she interferes, it ALWAYS the runner closest to home that is out, R1 in this case. The only times you would rule B3 out is if 1) she is the only other runner, or 2) R2 interferes BEFORE she is out, with the obvious intent to stop a double play. This (#2 above) isn't R2 interfering AT the base, it's her obviously and intentionally interfering with the batted ball, the fielder fielding the batted ball, or the fielder throwing the batted ball to 2nd before the initial out is recorded.
We had this one at a clinic on video.

ZERO OUT: R1 on 3rd, R2 on first. B3 bunts the ball in the air on a suicide squeeze play. The ball goes off F1's glove, hits the dirt and is picked up, is thrown to F6 at second for the out on R2. R2 runs into F6 without attempting to avoid contact, while F6 is attempting to throw to 1st base for the out on B3, who seeing the popup never ran towards 1st base until the ball dropped.

By the time the contact occurred at 2nd base, R1 had already touched home.

What is the call? The umpires on the play called R2 out on the force at second and B3 out on the interference by a retired runner. R3's run counted because at the time of the interference, she had already touched home.
Reply With Quote
  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sat Apr 11, 2015, 04:34pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2004
Posts: 359
Quote:
Originally Posted by chapmaja View Post
We had this one at a clinic on video.

ZERO OUT: R1 on 3rd, R2 on first. B3 bunts the ball in the air on a suicide squeeze play. The ball goes off F1's glove, hits the dirt and is picked up, is thrown to F6 at second for the out on R2. R2 runs into F6 without attempting to avoid contact, while F6 is attempting to throw to 1st base for the out on B3, who seeing the popup never ran towards 1st base until the ball dropped.

By the time the contact occurred at 2nd base, R1 had already touched home.

What is the call? The umpires on the play called R2 out on the force at second and B3 out on the interference by a retired runner. R3's run counted because at the time of the interference, she had already touched home.
I don't think this is entirely correct. I agree that if R1 from 3B has already reached home by the time the contact happened at 2B then the "runner closest to home" would be batter-runner assuming that the umpire is judging that the contact did constitute INT.

But I don't agree that this run scores. As I read your play the INT judgement was because there was a possibility of a play at 1B on B3 who had not yet reached 1B. When B3 is declared out for the 3rd out of the inning prior to reaching 1B no run may score on the play. It's not a timing issue.

Small wrinkle: let's say B3 had run on the popped up bunt and she had rounded 1B and the INT by the retired runner happens when F6 tries to get B3 who is diving back into 1B. Now R1s run would count as R1 crossed prior to the third out and that third out was not by the batter-runner prior to reaching 1B.
Reply With Quote
  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sat Apr 11, 2015, 05:34pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2002
Location: The Land Of The Free and The Home Of The Brave (MD/DE)
Posts: 6,425
Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpireErnie View Post
I don't think this is entirely correct. I agree that if R1 from 3B has already reached home by the time the contact happened at 2B then the "runner closest to home" would be batter-runner assuming that the umpire is judging that the contact did constitute INT.

But I don't agree that this run scores. As I read your play the INT judgement was because there was a possibility of a play at 1B on B3 who had not yet reached 1B. When B3 is declared out for the 3rd out of the inning prior to reaching 1B no run may score on the play. It's not a timing issue.

Small wrinkle: let's say B3 had run on the popped up bunt and she had rounded 1B and the INT by the retired runner happens when F6 tries to get B3 who is diving back into 1B. Now R1s run would count as R1 crossed prior to the third out and that third out was not by the batter-runner prior to reaching 1B.
There were no outs to start the play.
__________________
Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
Reply With Quote
  #7 (permalink)  
Old Sat Apr 11, 2015, 10:16pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2004
Posts: 359
Quote:
Originally Posted by CecilOne View Post
There were no outs to start the play.
Duh! Read too many plays lol. Of course since B3 is the 2nd out the run scores.
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks

Thread Tools
Display Modes Rate This Thread
Rate This Thread:

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On


Similar Threads
Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post
Retired runner proceeds straight to base -- do you have interference? (ASA) sbatten Softball 33 Mon Jun 24, 2013 11:32am
Interference by retired runner? Sco53 Baseball 4 Tue Apr 10, 2012 03:54pm
Interference by retired runner charliej47 Baseball 16 Mon Jun 22, 2009 09:00am
retired runner CecilOne Softball 16 Tue Apr 25, 2006 09:23am
interference by retired runner shipwreck Softball 15 Thu Sep 18, 2003 07:00am


All times are GMT -5. The time now is 11:22am.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1