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Old Sat Apr 11, 2015, 05:34pm
CecilOne CecilOne is offline
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Originally Posted by UmpireErnie View Post
I don't think this is entirely correct. I agree that if R1 from 3B has already reached home by the time the contact happened at 2B then the "runner closest to home" would be batter-runner assuming that the umpire is judging that the contact did constitute INT.

But I don't agree that this run scores. As I read your play the INT judgement was because there was a possibility of a play at 1B on B3 who had not yet reached 1B. When B3 is declared out for the 3rd out of the inning prior to reaching 1B no run may score on the play. It's not a timing issue.

Small wrinkle: let's say B3 had run on the popped up bunt and she had rounded 1B and the INT by the retired runner happens when F6 tries to get B3 who is diving back into 1B. Now R1s run would count as R1 crossed prior to the third out and that third out was not by the batter-runner prior to reaching 1B.
There were no outs to start the play.
Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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