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Old Wed Jan 30, 2013, 11:10am
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Join Date: Jun 2008
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Originally Posted by MikeZ View Post
Yes, all non touched. The part about 40' vs 43' feet was asked since a local varsity coach was telling me that there is a imaginary line drawn between 1st and 3rd. With a 40' rubber it is in front of the line and 43' is behind this line. He said if it hit the 43' rubber it is fair but 40' it is foul (if they both roll foul untouched). I didn't think he was correct, but can't find a rule to show him.
In FED there is no imaginary line that if the ball passes it it becomes fair. Look at rule 2-20, not going to type it word for word, but the ball has to touch 1st, 2nd or 3rd before going into foul territory to be considered a fair ball. Now look at the case play for 2-20. B1 hits a fly ball in the infield that falls untouched (b) behind the pitching circle, but just in front of second base. After hitting the ground, the ball continues to spin and rolls between home and first base and comes to rest in foul ground. RULING: (b) foul ball.
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Old Wed Jan 30, 2013, 11:29am
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Join Date: Apr 2012
Posts: 12
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Originally Posted by rkbump View Post
in fed there is no imaginary line that if the ball passes it it becomes fair. Look at rule 2-20, not going to type it word for word, but the ball has to touch 1st, 2nd or 3rd before going into foul territory to be considered a fair ball. Now look at the case play for 2-20. B1 hits a fly ball in the infield that falls untouched (b) behind the pitching circle, but just in front of second base. After hitting the ground, the ball continues to spin and rolls between home and first base and comes to rest in foul ground. Ruling: (b) foul ball.
thank you! Thank you! Thank you!:d
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