NFHS question # 49

[shipwreck]

49) A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred.

A. True
B. False YOUR ANSWER
Reference: 8-4-3b Pen a

I will stick by my guns that I got this one correct. The question is misleading.

Here is that rule reference. a. If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction, a dead ball is called and the obstructed runner and each other runner affected by the obstruction will be awarded the base or bases which would have been reached, in the umpire's judgment, had there not been obstruction. An obstructed runner may not be called out between the two bases where she was obstructed.

[PSUchem]

Not sure why you would think the answer false. Can you give a situation example?

[Andy]

Originally Posted by PSUchem

Not sure why you would think the answer false. Can you give a situation example?

I'm curious as well since the rule reference you cited reads almost verbatim to to the test question.....why is the question misleading?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by shipwreck

49) A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred.

A. True
B. False YOUR ANSWER
Reference: 8-4-3b Pen a

I will stick by my guns that I got this one correct. The question is misleading.

Here is that rule reference. a. If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction, a dead ball is called and the obstructed runner and each other runner affected by the obstruction will be awarded the base or bases which would have been reached, in the umpire's judgment, had there not been obstruction. An obstructed runner may not be called out between the two bases where she was obstructed.

The answer IS true. Just because an umpire called an OBS runner out, doesn't mean that the runner is ruled out.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by PSUchem

Not sure why you would think the answer false. Can you give a situation example?

The runner is protected only to the previous base and we have an intervening play and then the tag.
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[RKBUmp]

What intervening play are you thinking happened? Runner is protected between the 2 bases where the obstruction occured, not just the preceding base. If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching either of the bases she was obstructed between, the ball is dead, runner to be placed at base in the umpire judgement they would have reached without the obstruction.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

What intervening play are you thinking happened? Runner is protected between the 2 bases where the obstruction occured, not just the preceding base. If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching either of the bases she was obstructed between, the ball is dead, runner to be placed at base in the umpire judgement they would have reached without the obstruction.

Wish my book were right but as I remember the wording:
A runner may be called out between the obstructed bases if they have achieved the base they would have without the obstruction and there has been a play on a different runner.

The way I have this in my head: R1 at 2nd, sharply hit ball to Center. BR is obstructed rounding first. Ball is thrown in to the cutoff and BR heads back to first. Throw goes home and runner tries to go to second. A play is made at the plate and then the ball is thrown back to 2nd where the runner is tagged out.
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Harriet

[shipwreck]

Originally Posted by shipwreck

49) A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred.

A. True
B. False YOUR ANSWER
Reference: 8-4-3b Pen a

I will stick by my guns that I got this one correct. The question is misleading.

Here is that rule reference. a. If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction, a dead ball is called and the obstructed runner and each other runner affected by the obstruction will be awarded the base or bases which would have been reached, in the umpire's judgment, had there not been obstruction. An obstructed runner may not be called out between the two bases where she was obstructed.

The question should have read, "A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction" true or false? It shouldn't have made any reference to between the two bases they were obstructed between Dave

[JEL]

Originally Posted by shipwreck

The question should have read, "A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction" true or false? It shouldn't have made any reference to between the two bases they were obstructed between Dave

Don't try and "overthink" those tests!

While you may consider it a misleading question, "A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred" is a true statement.

and


"A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction" Is also a true statement.

[RadioBlue]

Originally Posted by shipwreck

The question should have read, "A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction" true or false? It shouldn't have made any reference to between the two bases they were obstructed between Dave

Remember: an obstructed runner can NEVER be called out while between the bases where the runner was obstructed, even if you're only protecting her to the previous base. For instance, BR rounding 1st is obstructed by F3 and is tagged out while trying for 2nd base. You will rule a "dead ball" and return the BR to 1st.

As for the subsequent action play brought up earlier in this thread, if the obstructed runner has not reached any base in either direction, she is still between the bases which she was obstructed. Other playing action has no bearing on this fact. Once she touches the next and/or previous base, now she's lost that "between the bases" protection and is only granted protection to the base/bases she would have reached had their been no obstruction.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by RadioBlue

Remember: an obstructed runner can NEVER be called out while between the bases where the runner was obstructed, even if you're only protecting her to the previous base. For instance, BR rounding 1st is obstructed by F3 and is tagged out while trying for 2nd base. You will rule a "dead ball" and return the BR to 1st.

As for the subsequent action play brought up earlier in this thread, if the obstructed runner has not reached any base in either direction, she is still between the bases which she was obstructed. Other playing action has no bearing on this fact. Once she touches the next and/or previous base, now she's lost that "between the bases" protection and is only granted protection to the base/bases she would have reached had their been no obstruction.

This is not how I understand it. If a runner is obstructed between 1st and 2nd, retreats to first and then goes to second they cannot be put out between those bases unless we have obstruction, interference or an intervening play. Similarly, if they were protected to second, reach second and think they need to tag up so they head back toward first, they are still protected unless we have one of those things.
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HEADSHOPS

[RadioBlue]

Originally Posted by youngump

This is not how I understand it. If a runner is obstructed between 1st and 2nd, retreats to first and then goes to second they cannot be put out between those bases unless we have obstruction, interference or an intervening play. Similarly, if they were protected to second, reach second and think they need to tag up so they head back toward first, they are still protected unless we have one of those things.

Under the Penalty portion to Rule 8-4-3(b) one of the exceptions states,
"When an obstructed runner, after the obstruction, safely obtains or returns to
the base she would have been awarded, in the umpire's judgment, had there
been no obstruction and there is a subsequent play on a different runner, the
obstructed runner is no longer protected between the bases where she was
obstructed and may be put out."

So, in your scenario, if the runner retreats to 1B and you were not protecting her to 2B, she's in jeapordy should she try to advance. Similarly, should she reach 2B and, for any reason, attempt to return to 1B, she is in jeapordy, as well.

You'll find what you're looking for on Pg. 62 of the 2010 Softball Rules book.

Hope that helps!

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by shipwreck

The question should have read, "A dead ball is called if an obstructed runner is tagged out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there not been obstruction" true or false? It shouldn't have made any reference to between the two bases they were obstructed between Dave

Actually, the OP question is true, yours is not always true due to the exception for an intervening play.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by RadioBlue

Under the Penalty portion to Rule 8-4-3(b) one of the exceptions states,
"When an obstructed runner, after the obstruction, safely obtains or returns to
the base she would have been awarded, in the umpire's judgment, had there
been no obstruction and there is a subsequent play on a different runner, the
obstructed runner is no longer protected between the bases where she was
obstructed and may be put out."

So, in your scenario, if the runner retreats to 1B and you were not protecting her to 2B, she's in jeapordy should she try to advance. Similarly, should she reach 2B and, for any reason, attempt to return to 1B, she is in jeapordy, as well.

You'll find what you're looking for on Pg. 62 of the 2010 Softball Rules book.

Hope that helps!

I hope this helps you then :-). Notice the And. If a runner is protected to second and reaches second and then retreats she is still protected. Unless there has been a subsequent play on a DIFFERENT runner.
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Asiansweetpussy

[youngump]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Actually, the OP question is true, yours is not always true due to the exception for an intervening play.

I think you have that backwards. There is no case where an intervening play can allow a runner to be out before reaching the protected base. There is a case where an intervening play can allow them to be out between the bases where the obstruction occurred.
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