Did I get this FLEX situation right?

[JefferMC]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Ed,

Tell me why B2. B1 did not miss their turn at bat if there was no BOO. The Flex, as an Illegal Player was retired by rule 4.6.C.3.Effect. Nowhere in Rule 4 or RS #15 does it state the Flex becoming an Illegal Batter would consitute batting out of order.

I (FWIW) think B2 because there was no BOO. Flex batted "for" B1, because there is no "B10." Aren't we doing a re-entry for B1?

If a pitch had been thrown, then 4.6.C.4 applies and we now have a runner on base; he's not the runner for B9, there is no B10, so he must be the runner for B1. B2 up. The only difference I see here is that the B1 slot is retired.