Retroactive Interference?

[tcannizzo]

Originally Posted by WestMichBlue

Why is it foul? Did you call Dead Ball while the ball was still in foul territory? If yes, what rule; what is your interpretation? If no, then the ball eventually rolled fair and settled (between home and 3B). Why isn't this a fair ball?

ASA Rule 1 - The Definitions.
FOUL BALL. A foul ball is a batted ball that:
D. While over foul territory, a runner interferes with a defensive player attempting to field a batted ball.

Originally Posted by WestMichBlue

Is "fielding" the ball in foul territority "a play?" The fielder is obviously not trying to get an out; she is trapping to ball foul because she cannot get the out. By doing so, the defense gains a strike on the batter, and another opportunity to get an out. (And in my situation, to prevent a run from scoring.)

This is definiltey a play. Fielders practice touching the ball the moment it is in foul territory. The runner impeded the fielder from making a play on a batted ball.

My call is DEAD BALL BATTER OUT on INT in foul territory, all runners return to base at time of pitch, AND a strike on the batter.