Retroactive Interference?
 

OK, we are not supposed to wait for the end of the play to call interference. But what do you call for the following?

Bunt down 3B line, just in foul territory. F5 comes to the ball and is bumped by R1 going home. Now what? Do you have any reason to kill the play? If you do, then you have a foul ball and you cannot call interference on a foul ground ball.

What if you let the play continue and the ball rolls into fair territory and dies. Now you have a fair ball. And F5 is complaining that she was prevented from touching the ball while it was still in foul territory, knowing that she had no play on the B-R.

What is your (ASA, NFHS, NCAA) call?

WMB

Speaking ASA

HTBT. If the fielder was actually prevented from fielding the ball in foul territory, it's a foul ball. If it was intentional, it's a foul ball and I'll probably need another player to return to 3B.

If the fielder was not making any effort to field the ball at the time of the "bump", it's nothing.

As stated, HTBT

Why is it foul? Did you call Dead Ball while the ball was still in foul territory? If yes, what rule; what is your interpretation? If no, then the ball eventually rolled fair and settled (between home and 3B). Why isn't this a fair ball?

The word "bump" is meant to convey contact which is neither malicious (flagrant) nor intentional. The result is the contact was to knock F5 off balance such that she was not able to touch the ball before it rolled fair.

Is "fielding" the ball in foul territority "a play?" The fielder is obviously not trying to get an out; she is trapping to ball foul because she cannot get the out. By doing so, the defense gains a strike on the batter, and another opportunity to get an out. (And in my situation, to prevent a run from scoring.)

So - the question: "If a runner hinders or prevents a defender from fielding a ball in foul territory, is that interference?"

If yes - what rule?

If no, and the ball rolls fair, then the defense is disavantaged by the action of the runner which allowed a base hit, and a run to score. How do you fix that? Or is it just part of the game - play on!

WMB

It's dead because we had interference. Interference is a dead ball.

Uh... go read the interference rule - this sitch is specifically stated. It is interference when a fielder is interfered while fielding a ball. The penalty if the ball is foul is simply a foul ball. By rule.

Because it was dead while in foul territory - everything after that never happened.

Yes, by rule.

ASA Rule 1 - The Definitions.
FOUL BALL. A foul ball is a batted ball that:
D. While over foul territory, a runner interferes with a defensive player attempting to field a batted ball.

This is definiltey a play. Fielders practice touching the ball the moment it is in foul territory. The runner impeded the fielder from making a play on a batted ball.

My call is DEAD BALL BATTER OUT on INT in foul territory, all runners return to base at time of pitch, AND a strike on the batter.

How can you call a player out for interfering with a ball with which the defense cannot put out anyone?

Tony, what would you do if F5 threw her glove and hit the ball to keep it foul?

:eek: ....................

Uh . . . I did. ASA 8-7.J " When the runner interferes: (1) with a fielder attempting to field a batted FAIR BALL.


WMB

let's forget that you can't call this batter out....

How can you have the batter out AND call a strike on the batter ... which batter, the next one?

Of course, this is merely a foul ball, even if intent is ruled.

Good point - my bad ... it's the FOUL BALL definition where this is found.

2006 ASA Rule Book Change
 

Far be it from me to correct anyone (this isn't a correction, really), but the 2006 rule book (ASA 8-7.J(1)) clarifies this one:

"(1) With a fielder attempting to field a batter fair ball or a foul fly ball" (emphasis mine)

There was a subtle wording change in 8-7.J that made neither the summary of rules changes and is not highlighted in the book I have (grrrr). I could summarize it best by saying that the 2005 J(1) and J(2) rules were combined in J(1), and all the following 2005 numbered paragraphs got decremented by one. The old J(2) made reference to a fly ball over foul territory.

The sitch implies bunted ball was rolling on the ground at the time of the bump. I got FOUL BALL, no INT (from the safety of my home office with two rule books in my hand).

Why foul? It rolled fair, untouched, inside 3B, and settled. That is a fair ball!

The only way for it to be foul is for you to kill the play while the ball is still rolling in foul territory. And if you don't have interference, what reason do you have for calling dead ball?

And if you don't kill the play, and it is a fair ball, then the offense is rewarded for bumping the defender. And that should not be right!

So what are you going to do?

WMB

I don't understand all the consternation here. Speaking ASA, this is, by rule, a foul ball. ASA 1-FOUL BALL-D.

The ball is dead because it is a foul ball.

It is a foul ball by rule.

Because it became a foul ball the moment the runner interefered "with the fielder attempting to field a batted ball." No contact is necessary with the ball at the instant of the runner's interfering. It is, at that instant, simply a foul ball. What the ball does on the ground after a foul ball is ruled is immaterial.

Definitions: FED 2.25.1e (at least in my 2004 book;) FOUL BALL, FOUL TIP - A foul ball is a batted ball that: while over foul territory, a runner interferes with a defensive player attempting to field a batted ball.

Doesn't say anything about having to be a fair batted ball, so I guess its a foul ball as soon as the interference occurs, and you just call the foul ball. Since there doesn't seem to be any penalty for a runner interfering with a batted ground ball ON foul territory - as opposed to a fly ball OVER foul territory, I guess you have to rule it like any other foul ball. Also, batter would be out if this was BUNT foul on third strike, right?