Retroactive Interference?

[WestMichBlue]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Speaking ASA

HTBT. If the fielder was actually prevented from fielding the ball in foul territory, it's a foul ball.

Why is it foul? Did you call Dead Ball while the ball was still in foul territory? If yes, what rule; what is your interpretation? If no, then the ball eventually rolled fair and settled (between home and 3B). Why isn't this a fair ball?

The word "bump" is meant to convey contact which is neither malicious (flagrant) nor intentional. The result is the contact was to knock F5 off balance such that she was not able to touch the ball before it rolled fair.

If the fielder was not making any effort to field the ball at the time of the "bump", it's nothing.

Is "fielding" the ball in foul territority "a play?" The fielder is obviously not trying to get an out; she is trapping to ball foul because she cannot get the out. By doing so, the defense gains a strike on the batter, and another opportunity to get an out. (And in my situation, to prevent a run from scoring.)

So - the question: "If a runner hinders or prevents a defender from fielding a ball in foul territory, is that interference?"

If yes - what rule?

If no, and the ball rolls fair, then the defense is disavantaged by the action of the runner which allowed a base hit, and a run to score. How do you fix that? Or is it just part of the game - play on!

WMB