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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 02:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mcrowder
Did BU go out or not?
No (sorry, left that detail out).
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 02:30pm
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"The runner is out when the runner physically passes a preceding runner before that runner has been put out." NFHS 8-6-4; ASA (2005) 8-7-D.

Why would the out be voided because the ball later became dead as a result of becoming an uncaught foul?
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 02:34pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Paul L
"The runner is out when the runner physically passes a preceding runner before that runner has been put out." NFHS 8-6-4; ASA (2005) 8-7-D.

Why would the out be voided because the ball later became dead as a result of becoming an uncaught foul?
The penalty for NFHS 8-6-4 states "The ball is in play and the runner is out." Since the ball is foul, it was never technically in play, therefore you can't call the runner out.
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 02:42pm
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Nonsense. He's out if he passes when the ball is live. Period. Whether it becomes foul or not after that does not undo the out. He's out.

Not a fun one to sell, for sure ... but this is the right call.
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 03:54pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MNBlue
Since the ball is foul, it was never technically in play, therefore you can't call the runner out.
Could it have been caught for an out? Yes. Could runners advance? Yes. Could runners score? Yes. Could the runners have been put out? Yes.

Sounds like the ball was in play to me.
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 05:21pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
Could it have been caught for an out? Yes. Could runners advance? Yes. Could runners score? Yes. Could the runners have been put out? Yes.

Sounds like the ball was in play to me.
Agreed, but once the ball is grounded and foul, why would 8-6-4 supercede 8-5-1?
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Last edited by MNBlue; Fri Apr 28, 2006 at 08:37pm.
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Old Fri Apr 28, 2006, 08:03pm
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This play is really making the rounds! I have seen five different variations of this scenario on five different discussion boards in the past week.

An interesting non-softball footnote: This same question came up a few days ago on the webpage run by my local baseball umpire association. They have a "Stump the Ump" board where members can submit questions to our associations rule interpretor.

Our interpretor admitted that he was stumped! The question was forwarded to Kyle McNeely on the NFHS national rules committee for clarification.

The word we got was that on a ball that becomes foul, the passing runner is not out.

Now, from a softball point of view: I would also tend to say that the runner is not out.

I would base this on NFHS rule 8-5-1 and ASA rule 8-6-A, both of which state that runners must return to their base when a batted ball is foul.

Kind of hard to comply with that rule if you've declared the runner out!

Since the ball has been declared foul, no advance of the runners is possible. If no advance is possible, how can we call a runner out for advancing illegally?
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Old Sat Apr 29, 2006, 08:54am
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Here's the problem with returning the runner. What runner are you going to return? S/he's no longer a runner because, by rule, THEY have already been declared out.

ASA Case Book Plays 8.8-15 & 8.8-17 notes that even though an over-the-fence HR is a dead ball, runners still may not pass each other and the passing runner will be declared out. That settles the live/dead ball discussion.

Now, the question becomes the fair/foul issue. Since no runners may advance on a foul ball of any sort, I believe a passing runner should not be declared out. Therefore, I will offer the following rule change to ASA for the 2007 season:

Runner is out

Add 8.7.D

EXCEPTION: When on a batted ball which is declared foul

Affects POE #39
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