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Fri Aug 12, 2022, 09:08am
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Been a long time since my last post, but in this situation, couldn't you interpolate the rule on 1st base where if you go over it, the runner is assumed to have touched the base until appealed? It seems to make sense to me it would follow on to 2nd, 3rd and Home. I personally believe, like Cecil4, if the foot goes over or past the base on any 3 sides besides the previous base, the runner has achieved the base and must perform base running duties as specified by the rules.
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Rick 
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