baserunning question

[Cecil4]

If a runner has to return to tag up after a fly ball, but has passed another base, that runner must touch the passed base on the way back.

In an MLB (sorry) game, there was a question of what constituted "passing a base".
The issue apparently was whether if only one foot touched the ground after the base, did that count as "passed" or did it have to be both feet.

Have you ever seen or heard a rule about that, softball or the other?

I would treat it as "passed" even if only one foot.

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by Cecil4

If a runner has to return to tag up after a fly ball, but has passed another base, that runner must touch the passed base on the way back.

In an MLB (sorry) game, there was a question of what constituted "passing a base".
The issue apparently was whether if only one foot touched the ground after the base, did that count as "passed" or did it have to be both feet.

Have you ever seen or heard a rule about that, softball or the other?

I would treat it as "passed" even if only one foot.

I think the issue is not whether the base was passed, but at what point the runner is considered to be "on the way back".

[PaREF]

I was watching that game, it was a Pittsburgh Pirate runner. The batter hit a long fly to the outfield that appeared headed into the gap between left and center field, but the fielder made a fine running catch. The runner at first had advanced to (nearly) second base when the catch was made. The runner actually stepped over second base (never touched it) and when he stopped, his lead foot was clearly between second and third base. His trailing foot (also never touching second base) never actually passed the base. When he turned to retreat to first, he picked up his trailing foot and pushed off with his lead foot. He returned to first without ever touching second base either while advancing or retreating.

I don't know the exact interpretation but I think that he was ruled to have been past second base because he had one foot on the third base side of second while the other foot was not touching the ground, so he was ruled to have passed second base but did not re-touch the base on the way back to first.

[Altor]

There was two of these recently, with Philly being on defense for both of them. Close Call Sports covered them both because they are adjudicated differently.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BhGIQ5BIleY

Cruz for Pittsburgh went past the 2B bag with both feet and returned to first without touching 2B at any point in the play. He was called out on appeal.

The Miami player touched 2B with his right foot. When he turned around, his right foot went past the bag, but the left foot never did. Since both feet weren't past the base, he was not required to retouch upon returning to first.

[Cecil4]

The Phila-Miami was the one I saw.
My question is whether there is a specific rule anywhere about one or two feet.

I would treat it as "passed" even if only one foot; unless the other foot was touching the base.

[TexBlue]

Been a long time since my last post, but in this situation, couldn't you interpolate the rule on 1st base where if you go over it, the runner is assumed to have touched the base until appealed? It seems to make sense to me it would follow on to 2nd, 3rd and Home. I personally believe, like Cecil4, if the foot goes over or past the base on any 3 sides besides the previous base, the runner has achieved the base and must perform base running duties as specified by the rules.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by TexBlue

Been a long time since my last post, but in this situation, couldn't you interpolate the rule on 1st base where if you go over it, the runner is assumed to have touched the base until appealed?

Usually means both feet past first. Not the case here. Don't know why the call.

[Robert Goodman]

What if the runner slid over the bag, touching it with some part of the upper body, and pops up to run back to 1B? Wouldn't that mean that when she started back to 1B, she was touching 2B, even if 2B was "in the way" of her line back to 1B?

[Cecil4]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Usually means both feet past first. Not the case here. Don't know why the call.

My question is whether there is a specific rule anywhere about one or two feet.

[teebob21]

Originally Posted by PaREF

I don't know the exact interpretation but I think that he was ruled to have been past second base because he had one foot on the third base side of second while the other foot was not touching the ground, so he was ruled to have passed second base but did not re-touch the base on the way back to first.

The OBR interpretation is that if you cut the base on a 45 degree angle, the runner must have two feet past to be "past", or else he is still "prior" to the base and does not need to retouch on returning.

I have no idea what the corresponding interps are for any of the softball alphabets.

[AtlUmpSteve]

In all instances (well, except the current NCAA out-of-the-box rule) of a line defining a space, be it fair/foul, live/dead, batter's box, catcher's box, pitching lane, running lane, the softball standard is one foot completely beyond that line when in contact with the ground.

While still in contact with the base, this (reasonably) shouldn't apply; like leaving early. But the one foot in contact with the ground beyond once NOT in contact with the base would be the most logical extension.

[Robert Goodman]

If you don't contact the bag while advancing, but do "pass" it by some geometric understanding, then if you touch it on the way back do you have to touch it twice?

[Altor]

No. The defense can only successfully appeal a missed base when it was missed on the "last time by".