Play on or dead ball

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Andy

First of all, let me say that I am absolutely sympathetic to your need to get outs in a game like the one you describe.....

That being said, I read your description of the play as a live ball, play on. From your description, the batted ball passed F3 and F4 (and I'm assuming F9) had no opportunity to make a play.

I've only hear the straight line between two fielders theory used in reference to base umpire positioning and when the BU is considered "behind" the infielders.

This doesn't matter.

[chapmaja]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

This doesn't matter.

Actually it could have an impact. If this were a line drive, F9 could be playing shallow and have an opportunity to make a play. IIRC the rules does read "no other fielder", not no other infielder.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by chapmaja

Actually it could have an impact. If this were a line drive, F9 could be playing shallow and have an opportunity to make a play. IIRC the rules does read "no other fielder", not no other infielder.

Get some more input on this.

[chapmaja]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Get some more input on this.

Here is a situation that could happen. R2 at second, R1 at first. R2 has been taking a big lead off the base, so F8 is coming in behind the runner, trying to pick off R2 as she returns to the base. When she goes back she only goes slightly onto the outfield grass. B3 hits a line drive which is passes F6 (who is in front of the baseline, but hits R2 going from second to third. Had the ball not hit R2, it would have gone right to F8, who would have had a very possible throw to second for a force, or throw to first for the out. Are you saying that because F8 is not an infielder, we ignore this, even though the rule book is clear "... or if it passes an infielder and any fielder has an opportunity to make an out."

Today I had an outfielder make a force out at second base, and had an out for a runner hit by a line drive between first and second (F4 could possibly have made a play, as the ball was close to where she could have reached.)

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by chapmaja

Here is a situation that could happen. R2 at second, R1 at first. R2 has been taking a big lead off the base, so F8 is coming in behind the runner, trying to pick off R2 as she returns to the base. When she goes back she only goes slightly onto the outfield grass. B3 hits a line drive which is passes F6 (who is in front of the baseline, but hits R2 going from second to third. Had the ball not hit R2, it would have gone right to F8, who would have had a very possible throw to second for a force, or throw to first for the out. Are you saying that because F8 is not an infielder, we ignore this, even though the rule book is clear "... or if it passes an infielder and any fielder has an opportunity to make an out."

If that happens you have a really stupid defensive alignment. Don't hold your breath waiting for it to happen.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

If that happens you have a really stupid defensive alignment. Don't hold your breath waiting for it to happen.

His is slightly out there, but I'll take it into standard softball. R1 on 1st when B2 hits a sharp liner to shallow left. F3 is playing inside the diamond and F9 is at the standard shallow depth where she will have a play on the BR. The ball hits R1. Now, from your reply it seemed to be you were arguing that this is not interference. But the rules says F9 having a play on the BR is the only condition for interference. Perhaps you could clarify your position on this.