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Sat May 14, 2016, 06:58am
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I'm not surprised that nobody complained. After all, everybody "knows" that anytime a runner gets hit by the ball, the runner is out...right? Well, we umpires know that's not right. I've had some real blowups when the ball did pass a fielder, then hit a runner, and I didn't call her out. Because, everybody knows...
Doesn't FED consider "past the fielder(s)" by drawing a straight line between the two adjacent fielders? On this play you'd draw a line from F3 to F4. If the ball was behind that line, then it was past the fielder(s). 
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