Punt question

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by ajmc

There is no situation that even suggests in any interpretation what you are saying. You are taking it further than even the rules or interpretation allows.

Forgive me, I thought this was a hypothetical question leading to a discussion, I never got a copy of the memo appointing you Grand Pupa in charge of deciding, "how far the rules, or interpretations, are allowed to go. If you have reasoning beyond, "Because you said so", please share it, I'd like to consider it.

You can do what you want, but you are alone in this interpretation here. And I have never heard a single person at any level suggest what you are suggesting. And I am a person that has for years been a back judge or deep wing and never heard anyone suggest the rule applies the way you are doing here. I would think at some point someone other than you would make this argument, but they have not.

Originally Posted by ajmc

A Referee would rarely if ever be judging any first touching or any of these kinds of plays. So not sure where the Referee is going to be making any decision as it relates to this rule.

I never intended to suggest the Referee would be asked about his version of what actually happened, likely being far removed from the downfield action, but some Referees expect to be kept abreast of exceptional calls in the event there might be questions, and might even provide useful advice.

Just stating the ruling would long be made before they got involved. This would be a tape review issue or a discussion in the locker room, but not where this rule would likely be involked.

Originally Posted by ajmc

The Referee cannot also overrule anyone's judgment.

Strange, I don't recall reading anywhere that the Referee was prevented from reviewing judgment calls. Although it's certainly not an every day matter, I thought the second sentence of 1-1-6, "The Referee's decisions are final in ALL MATTERS pertaining to the game", actually meant "ALL MATTERS", and a quality Referee might be able to add some valuable input to the discussion that would persuade the covering official to rethink the original call.

But this is a judgment call, just based on your explaination of "your" interpretation. You never explained how far we take a touch to subsequent touches (which there is no rules support for). So wouldn't this situation be based on judgment? Not sure where the actual rule would come into play even with the definition that is stated. I would think you would have to rule when a touch is "forced" or not forced.

Originally Posted by ajmc

not some situation in which you are trying to define something that is already defined.

I thought the fact that this particular scenario is NOT defined, is what raises it as a question, intended to open a iscussion.

I do not think this is as unclear as you stated. You just are looking for specifics for a hypothtical that the rule was not intended for IMO. And it appears no one else but you are having this issue. And I did discuss this with others to see if I was crazy or missing something and have yet anyone to suggest your interpretation applies to the actual rule or intent of the rule.

Peace