OSU Purdue Incomplete Pass or Fumble

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by FeetBallRef

So if we all agree that it was a pass then why wouldn't it be intentional grounding because there were no receivers in the area.

Because of that pesky word "intentional". Read the IG rule if you need clarification - it specifies for you when that rule comes into play.

[bigjohn]

His intent was to not throw the ball but it came out of his hand, so it should be a fumble!

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by bigjohn

His intent was to not throw the ball but it came out of his hand, so it should be a fumble!

Please check with your training organization to see what they expect you to call. Me --- I see this call being on the training film as an incomplete pass next off-season.

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Please check with your training organization to see what they expect you to call. Me --- I see this call being on the training film as an incomplete pass next off-season.

He's a coach with an affinity for needling officials.

Did your post originally say something else?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Welpe

He's a coach with an affinity for needling officials.

Did your post originally say something else?

Yes ... I decided to be a little nicer - my original post was probably over the top ... although if he's a coach, maybe I should reinstate it.

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Yes ... I decided to be a little nicer - my original post was probably over the top ... although if he's a coach, maybe I should reinstate it.

OK I was just making sure I wasn't crazy as I thought I read one thing, then hit "Quote" and something else showed up.

[FeetBallRef]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Because of that pesky word "intentional". Read the IG rule if you need clarification - it specifies for you when that rule comes into play.

Going out on a limb here, so don't pound to hard.

He did intentionally change the direction of his throw so that his arm was swinging downward when the ball came out. If his release had been intentional, the ball would have landed at the heels of the offensive linemen therefore the IG would apply. Since his release of the ball was unintentional, we'll signal a incomplete pass even though his intentional direction was down.

What if the hand went down further and the unintentional release of the ball caused the ball to go parallel to or toward A's endline. Would this still be ruled an incomplete pass because he unintentionally released the ball or is it now a fumble since the unintentional release of the pass was parallel to or toward A's endline?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by FeetBallRef

Going out on a limb here, so don't pound to hard.

He did intentionally change the direction of his throw so that his arm was swinging downward when the ball came out. If his release had been intentional, the ball would have landed at the heels of the offensive linemen therefore the IG would apply. Since his release of the ball was unintentional, we'll signal a incomplete pass even though his intentional direction was down.

What if the hand went down further and the unintentional release of the ball caused the ball to go parallel to or toward A's endline. Would this still be ruled an incomplete pass because he unintentionally released the ball or is it now a fumble since the unintentional release of the pass was parallel to or toward A's endline?

I'll try to be nice ... but this is truly a simple call. Surely the fact that there's been NO outrage, NO confession of a screwed up call, NO complaints from the offended team in the actual game we're talking about should lead you to the conclusion that what we are telling you is correct.

Are you an official? If so, this discourse frightens me. You seem to WANT a penalty here... to the point that you're making efforts to bend the wording of rules to fit your preconceived notion. I would expect an official not to do this. You obviously don't believe us ... go ask your mentor, your trainers, etc.

This situation is really not that uncommon. Passer starts to pass, changes his mind, and the ball goes somewhere he didn't intend. This has been an incomplete pass in all rule codes for several years. I believe it may have been different when I was very young ... but not now.

(And note - if the unintentional pass was CLEARLY backward, then you simply have an uncaught backward pass, and all that implies. And remember - when in doubt, a pass is forward.)

[MJT]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Because of that pesky word "intentional". Read the IG rule if you need clarification - it specifies for you when that rule comes into play.

Feetballref, I'm glad you are hearing the same thing on different boards, from different officials. That should add some validity to the answer.