false double foul question/ and block/charge

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by just another ref

4.19.9 Situation A

4.19.9 SITUATION A: A1 leaps high and is fouled by B1 as he/she taps the ball
which subsequently goes through A’s basket. A1 fouls B2 in returning to the floor.
RULING: This is a false double foul. The foul by B1 does not cause the ball to
become dead. However, the player-control foul by A1 does cause the ball to
become dead and also dictates that no goal can be scored. Since the goal is not
scored, A1 is awarded two free throws for the foul by B1. No players are allowed
along the lane as Team B will be awarded the ball following the last free throw. If
the last throw is successful, the throw-in is from anywhere along the end line. If
the last throw is unsuccessful, the throw-in is from a designated spot nearest the
foul. (4-1; 4-11; 4-41-1; 6-7-7 Exception c: 6-7-4; 7-5-4a)

[Adam]

Originally Posted by mutantducky

Like that ref who called that Colgate/Belmont violation. He made an unusual call but he did it by rule.

These aren't even remotely the same thing.

[APG]

Originally Posted by mutantducky

ok thx
Let me add a scenario to this. Say you do have two fouls, so you are doing two shots with the lane cleared then B's ball. But the charge means it is A1 fifth foul. Does A1 shoot or does the coach of Team A get to choose a substitute to shoot the fts?

Originally Posted by APG

Does the rule book ever allow for a player that is supposed to be DQ'd to attempt their free throws prior to being replaced (assuming proper notification)?

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

No. Why? (maybe I missed something in the thread)

It was a question directed toward mutant...to help answer his question.

[BryanV21]

Let's say there is three seconds left in the game. Coaches and fans are really into it.

Why does this matter?

I don't mean to say that the time of the game never affects the way a game is called, but adding this to the situation should not change the answer.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by mutantducky

A1 drives, gets fouled on the arm but as he completes his shot he commits a charge. So this is all one offensive play when the player had started his shot attempt. He makes the basket to put his team within one point. You have one Coach screaming for a charge. Are you going to just ignore the charging call and let the player shoot the FT to tie the game? You guys seem to be saying I should ignore the charge because no one would actually call both fouls. That just doesn't make sense at all to me. Why reward the offensive player with a potential three point play when he had to commit a charge to get the shot off?

I understand it doesn't make sense to you right now. It will, over time.

In your play, I'm likely to go with the PC call and ignore the contact on the shot as incidental.