Kicked Ball?

[Freddy]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Then, the question that would follow would be whether the player was striking the ball in the OP. While the answer is no, the NFHS has made it clear that deliberate use of the feet/legs to play the ball violates the intent of the rule.

I know this is true, but I'm trying to track down NFHS documentation that the "striking the ball" in 4-29 should be interpreted to mean more than just that and what Camron says above.
Anybody got any references I can cite in a meeting tonight?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Freddy

I know this is true, but I'm trying to track down NFHS documentation that the "striking the ball" in 4-29 should be interpreted to mean more than just that and what Camron says above.
Anybody got any references I can cite in a meeting tonight?

Other than the case play cited by Billy?

[rsl]

This is NCAA, and from a post in 2006 (I don't do college, so I am trusting the orginal post). Seems to appropriate for this discussion.

A.R. 30. A1 is on the floor with the ball lodged between the upper part of the legs. B1 attempts to gain possession of the ball by placing two hands firmly on the ball; however, A1 applies vice-like force with the upper legs, which prevents B1 from gaining possession of the ball.
RULING: A1 has committed a violation. The intent of this Rule is to prevent a player from gaining an advantage by using any part of the leg. Although A1 did not kick or strike the ball with any part of the leg, the player did gain an illegal advantage, which may also lead to undue roughness. Since A1 was not holding the ball in his or her hands, B1's firm placement of his or her hands on the ball does not constitute a held ball.

[Freddy]

Originally Posted by Raymond

Other than the case play cited by Billy?

Yes.