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Wouldn't an illegal dribble indicate that there was one dribble that ended? "A player shall not dribble a second time after his/her first dribble has ended, unless it is after he/she has lost control because of..."
In the OP the player never dribbled. So if the player intentionally batted the ball in the air (had control) and moved his pivot foot isn't this a travel? |
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Quote:
The only way a bat = control is when it is a part of a dribble. If a rebound comes off and a player bats it into the air he may (hypothetically) do so an unlimited number of times and proceed from one end of the court to the other without violation.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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I realize that it is "unconventional" ball handling which occurs on the infrequently observed "running bobble" by A2 or other A# as you,ve described but we have Nothing. So, although a ref may cognitively know that A# purposefully utilized the "running bobble" to obtain offensive advantage ie men s rea, we still have Nothing. Play on.
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That's a different play, with a different ruling.
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