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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 08:19pm
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The "running bobble"

A1 has the ball on the wing on a secondary break when the entry pass goes to A2 moving down the lane line. A2 bobbles it several times as he continues to take steps toward the basket, never gaining possession of it. Before he can gain possession, my partner hits his whistle and signals a travel. Is this any kind of violation? Is there any way this could be construed as a travel?
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 08:25pm
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Can't Travel Without Possession ...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Whitten View Post
A1 has the ball on the wing on a secondary break when the entry pass goes to A2 moving down the lane line. A2 bobbles it several times as he continues to take steps toward the basket, never gaining possession of it. Before he can gain possession, my partner hits his whistle and signals a travel. Is this any kind of violation? Is there any way this could be construed as a travel?
No.

No.

A player must be holding the ball (with one very rare exception) in order to travel. A player can't travel while dribbling, while tapping the ball, while fumbling it, or while trying to recover a loose ball.
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Last edited by BillyMac; Wed Dec 17, 2014 at 08:27pm.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 08:35pm
AremRed
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If it is a true fumble then it's a no call. If you deem the player is purposely fumbling the ball then you can say there is control and call the travel.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:25pm
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A player can't travel if he/she isn't in control of the ball. And fumbling the ball, unless you judge it to be done intentionally, is not control.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BryanV21 View Post
And fumbling the ball, unless you judge it to be done intentionally, is not control.
Explain this please.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Explain this please.
Like Amenred just said... "If you deem the player is purposely fumbling the ball then you can say there is control and call the travel."
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:46pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Explain this please.
If he's purposefully "bobbling" the ball, you have a dribble that violates 4-15-2.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:33pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AremRed View Post
If it is a true fumble then it's a no call. If you deem the player is purposely fumbling the ball then you can say there is control and call the travel.

Do not even try that argument with me. Either A2 had gained control of the ball or he has not.

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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:56pm
AremRed
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. View Post
Do not even try that argument with me. Either A2 had gained control of the ball or he has not.
Do not even try that argument with me, it's a violation either way.
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Old Thu Dec 18, 2014, 06:00am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AremRed View Post
Do not even try that argument with me, it's a violation either way.

It is NOT a violation either way. Either the player is bobbling, fumbling would be the better word to use to describe the situation, the ball or the player has player control; you cannot have both at the same time.

I am going back to bed now.

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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:41pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Whitten View Post
A1 has the ball on the wing on a secondary break when the entry pass goes to A2 moving down the lane line. A2 bobbles it several times as he continues to take steps toward the basket, never gaining possession of it. Before he can gain possession, my partner hits his whistle and signals a travel. Is this any kind of violation? Is there any way this could be construed as a travel?
Not a travel. You cannot travel unless you're holding the ball. You'll hear lots of screams, but there's nothing to call.

Ugly isn't a violation.
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