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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 16, 2012, 10:46pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
The answer I recall is (paraphrasing) "Because of the case play. Even though that's not what it says, that's what they meant."

If that's the answer you mean, you're right, it's not satisfactory.
It's exactly what it says, according to everyone but you. I can never remember if you refuse to believe it means what everyone says it means or if you just want to insist they shouldn't do it that way.
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Old Sun Dec 16, 2012, 10:59pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Adam View Post
It's exactly what it says, according to everyone but you. I can never remember if you refuse to believe it means what everyone says it means or if you just want to insist they shouldn't do it that way.

Actually, perhaps the biggest problem I have with the universal interpretation is when it is not applied.

"One official calls a blocking foul............the other official calls a charging foul."


Me: It says calls, not signals. Not the same thing.

Everybody else: A signal is a call. That's what it means.


BUT, if the signal (call) made by the first official is only a fist, without a preliminary signal, that call/signal doesn't matter.

The guy signaled (called) a foul, the same as the other guy. He knows what his call was, but now it doesn't matter.

Why?
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 16, 2012, 11:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Actually, perhaps the biggest problem I have with the universal interpretation is when it is not applied.

"One official calls a blocking foul............the other official calls a charging foul."


Me: It says calls, not signals. Not the same thing.

Everybody else: A signal is a call. That's what it means.


BUT, if the signal (call) made by the first official is only a fist, without a preliminary signal, that call/signal doesn't matter.

The guy signaled (called) a foul, the same as the other guy. He knows what his call was, but now it doesn't matter.

Why?
How about this? In your games you insist that your crew do it your way. And if you happen to join a new conference/association you tell the supervisor that hired you that you will not allow blarges in your games.
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Old Sun Dec 16, 2012, 11:51pm
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On a side note...had a non-blarge in my game Friday night. As L, drive came from T's area...crash right in front of me. I hit the whistle and yell block and T is coming in yelling offense...he comes to me and asks me if I saw the offensive player shove off with his left arm...said that I had not and told him to take it to the table...he did...caught no grief from anyone.

So to ask the question again...the case play says one official "called" this, other "called" that...so at what point has something been "called"?

Last edited by Adam; Mon Dec 17, 2012 at 12:00am.
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Old Sun Dec 16, 2012, 11:57pm
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And with that being said, in my area and the college conferences I work for this certainly would be the case. But it was a joke and not meant to be serious. Honestly I cannot think anyone is seriously debating this issue anyway when the rules and casebook have made this rather clear. And to debate that should be a bigger issue of maturity.

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Last edited by Adam; Mon Dec 17, 2012 at 12:01am.
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Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 12:01am
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My other option was to lock it. Let's keep it civil.
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Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 12:10am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Adam View Post
My other option was to lock it. Let's keep it civil.
If what you took was out of line, then you might as well close the thread. I thought that exchange was very civil. We have a person that thinks what is in the casebook is not real and honestly is the only person I have ever had a conversation that wanted to believe under NF rules that this procedure is flawed. And we all know that there are more than rules that keep people from being hired. Honestly all of what I said was in jest.

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Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 12:04am
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Originally Posted by rockyroad View Post
So to ask the question again...the case play says one official "called" this, other "called" that...so at what point has something been "called"?
There, it's not just me, now. Somebody answer him, please.
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Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 10:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rockyroad View Post
On a side note...had a non-blarge in my game Friday night. As L, drive came from T's area...crash right in front of me. I hit the whistle and yell block and T is coming in yelling offense...he comes to me and asks me if I saw the offensive player shove off with his left arm...said that I had not and told him to take it to the table...he did...caught no grief from anyone.

So to ask the question again...the case play says one official "called" this, other "called" that...so at what point has something been "called"?
Every supervisor I work for says we have to eat the Blarge once 2 conflicting preliminary signals are given. I've never attended I formal clinic that tells us to do otherwise.

So for me it's very easy. Just by coincidence, tonight I will be working for the 2nd time with the only official I've ever had a Blarge with. That was about 3-4 seasons ago. Neither one of us suffered b/c of that call.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 11:26am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Every supervisor I work for says we have to eat the Blarge once 2 conflicting preliminary signals are given. I've never attended I formal clinic that tells us to do otherwise.

So for me it's very easy. Just by coincidence, tonight I will be working for the 2nd time with the only official I've ever had a Blarge with. That was about 3-4 seasons ago. Neither one of us suffered b/c of that call.
So it is the preliminary signal that constitutes "calling" a foul? At least as far as your supervisors go?

I am ok with that...but can also see JAR's point...

In my situation, neither of us signaled anything, we both just verbalized what we had and then realized the other guy had something different.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 05:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rockyroad View Post

In my situation, neither of us signaled anything, we both just verbalized what we had and then realized the other guy had something different.
This is a new question. Does verbalizing the conflicting calls obligate them to go with both? I don't see why that wouldn't be the same as conflicting signals.
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 17, 2012, 11:28am
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I have had the same partner for about 8 years now. In our two man games if we have a double whistle, which usually happens in the lane, if a double whistle occurs the lead takes the call. I as trail know to go with closed fist and to not automatically signal a block or charge. If the lead has a whistle it is his foul. Knock in wood, we haven't had a blarge ever.
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