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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 02:01am
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Came across this question...
...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 02:10am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"
No.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 02:22am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"
...sounds like basket interference to me...is this a trick question?

4-6-1
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 02:35am
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Originally Posted by RookieDude View Post
...sounds like basket interference to me...is this a trick question?

4-6-1
It's only basket interference if the rim hasn't returned back to its normal position (assuming the rim is released before the ball enters in the basket).

As to the OP, answer is no.
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Last edited by APG; Sun Nov 25, 2012 at 02:49am.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 04:10am
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Originally Posted by APG View Post
It's only basket interference if the rim hasn't returned back to its normal position (assuming the rim is released before the ball enters in the basket).

As to the OP, answer is no.
Actually, even that isn't enough. For this specific action to cause a BI violation, not only must the ring have not yet returned to its original position when the ball enters the basket, but the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.

Consult the specific wording of 4-6-4.

As for the question in the OP, it is a technical foul on A2, but not enough information is provided to state whether BI has occurred or not, so we really can't answer the question.
Last edited by Nevadaref; Sun Nov 25, 2012 at 04:24am.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 07:16am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
For this specific action to cause a BI violation, the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.


It is legal to touch the ring or the net if the ball is above the ring and not touching the ring, even if the ball is in the imaginary cylinder above the ring.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 12:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BillyMac View Post


It is legal to touch the ring or the net if the ball is above the ring and not touching the ring, even if the ball is in the imaginary cylinder above the ring.
Touch, yes. Grasp, no.

So, if grasping is a T by rule, and it would basically kill the shot, why wouldn't, the answer be YES?
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 12:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
Touch, yes. Grasp, no.

So, if grasping is a T by rule, and it would basically kill the shot, why wouldn't, the answer be YES?
Why would a T "kill the shot" that had already been released?
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 12:44pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
So, if grasping is a T by rule, and it would basically kill the shot, why wouldn't, the answer be YES?
Are you sure about that?
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 12:44pm
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Why would it kill the shot?
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 01:47pm
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Ah, there it is. Thanks.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 01:54pm
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
Ah, there it is. Thanks.
Also grasping isn't a T if done so to prevent injury.
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Chaos isn't a pit. Chaos is a ladder. Many who try to climb it fail and never get to try again. The fall breaks them. And some, given a chance to climb, they refuse. They cling to the realm, or the gods, or love. Illusions.

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Last edited by APG; Sun Nov 25, 2012 at 01:57pm.
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 05:28pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
Actually, even that isn't enough. For this specific action to cause a BI violation, not only must the ring have not yet returned to its original position when the ball enters the basket, but the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.

Consult the specific wording of 4-6-4.

As for the question in the OP, it is a technical foul on A2, but not enough information is provided to state whether BI has occurred or not, so we really can't answer the question.
Doesn't A2 have to hang on the rim to invoke a T? If A2 grasps, lets go and does not hang, no violation. Correct as required.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 06:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SamIAm View Post
Doesn't A2 have to hang on the rim to invoke a T? If A2 grasps, lets go and does not hang, no violation. Correct as required.
Nope, the rule is about grasping. Hanging is not part of it. See 10-3-3.
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Old Sun Nov 25, 2012, 07:32pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
Nope, the rule is about grasping. Hanging is not part of it. See 10-3-3.
Let me see If I can summarize this correctly. A1 shoots a try at own basket. while try is in flight, A2 grasps the ring A) legally (to protect from injury) or B) illegally. The ring is pulled down but returns to its normal position before the ball passes through the ring without touching it, only the net. So, in A) legal. basket is counted and no violation or technical is charged to A2.
B) A1's try is counted as try was in flight prior to technical foul charged to A2 for grasping the ring. B is given 2 technical foul shots shot by any legal player or substitute and given the ball at midcourt line.

How is this?
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