Came across this question...

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Sharpshooternes

Let me see If I can summarize this correctly. A1 shoots a try at own basket. while try is in flight, A2 grasps the ring A) legally (to protect from injury) or B) illegally. The ring is pulled down but returns to its normal position before the ball passes through the ring without touching it, only the net. So, in A) legal. basket is counted and no violation or technical is charged to A2.
B) A1's try is counted as try was in flight prior to technical foul charged to A2 for grasping the ring. B is given 2 technical foul shots shot by any legal player or substitute and given the ball at midcourt line.

How is this?

Correct

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by bainsey

...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"

"...disallows the basket..."

This is the part that makes the official incorrect in his ruling.

Whether the technical foul should or should not be called is immaterial, since the second part makes the ruling incorrect.

[jritchie]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

"...disallows the basket..."

This is the part that makes the official incorrect in his ruling.

Whether the technical foul should or should not be called is immaterial, since the second part makes the ruling incorrect.

But it doesn't say whether the rim came back to it's original position or not before the ball goes through, it just says that A2 just released the rim!