Came across this question...

[bainsey]

...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"

[HawkeyeCubP]

Originally Posted by bainsey

...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"

No.

[RookieDude]

Originally Posted by bainsey

...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"

...sounds like basket interference to me...is this a trick question?

4-6-1

[APG]

Originally Posted by RookieDude

...sounds like basket interference to me...is this a trick question?

4-6-1

It's only basket interference if the rim hasn't returned back to its normal position (assuming the rim is released before the ball enters in the basket).

As to the OP, answer is no.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by APG

It's only basket interference if the rim hasn't returned back to its normal position (assuming the rim is released before the ball enters in the basket).

As to the OP, answer is no.

Actually, even that isn't enough. For this specific action to cause a BI violation, not only must the ring have not yet returned to its original position when the ball enters the basket, but the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.

Consult the specific wording of 4-6-4.

As for the question in the OP, it is a technical foul on A2, but not enough information is provided to state whether BI has occurred or not, so we really can't answer the question.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

For this specific action to cause a BI violation, the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.

It is legal to touch the ring or the net if the ball is above the ring and not touching the ring, even if the ball is in the imaginary cylinder above the ring.

[bainsey]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

It is legal to touch the ring or the net if the ball is above the ring and not touching the ring, even if the ball is in the imaginary cylinder above the ring.

Touch, yes. Grasp, no.

So, if grasping is a T by rule, and it would basically kill the shot, why wouldn't, the answer be YES?

[SamIAm]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Actually, even that isn't enough. For this specific action to cause a BI violation, not only must the ring have not yet returned to its original position when the ball enters the basket, but the ball must make contact with the ring. If it passes through without doing so, then no violation has occurred.

Consult the specific wording of 4-6-4.

As for the question in the OP, it is a technical foul on A2, but not enough information is provided to state whether BI has occurred or not, so we really can't answer the question.

Doesn't A2 have to hang on the rim to invoke a T? If A2 grasps, lets go and does not hang, no violation. Correct as required.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by SamIAm

Doesn't A2 have to hang on the rim to invoke a T? If A2 grasps, lets go and does not hang, no violation. Correct as required.

Nope, the rule is about grasping. Hanging is not part of it. See 10-3-3.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by bainsey

...while preparing for our rules test tomorrow:

"A-1’s try is bouncing directly above the basket, in the cylinder, when A-2 grasps the ring. After A-2 releases his/her grasp, the ball enters the basket.

Official rules a technical foul on A-2 and disallows the basket. Is the official correct?"

"...disallows the basket..."

This is the part that makes the official incorrect in his ruling.

Whether the technical foul should or should not be called is immaterial, since the second part makes the ruling incorrect.

[jritchie]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

"...disallows the basket..."

This is the part that makes the official incorrect in his ruling.

Whether the technical foul should or should not be called is immaterial, since the second part makes the ruling incorrect.

But it doesn't say whether the rim came back to it's original position or not before the ball goes through, it just says that A2 just released the rim!