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  #31 (permalink)  
Old Thu May 03, 2012, 01:39pm
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Hmmm....how would you call this play....

A1 has the ball while on both knees. A1 lifts his left knee and returns it to the floor.

What is your call? Does it matter if the lift is 2" or 10"?

A1 then lifts his right knee and returns it to the floor.

Do you have a call now? If not, What if A1 repeats the above actions 2 times, 3 times, 10 times?

Still not traveling? How many times can A1 lift a knee and put it back down on the floor? How far can A1 move using such a technique?

If the traveling rule only regulates foot movement, and not knee movement, is this a legal tactic?

Or, does it make sense to consider the lifting and returning to the floor of a foot/knee while the player is on the floor as if the knee/foot were a pivot foot?
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  #32 (permalink)  
Old Thu May 03, 2012, 01:52pm
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Get's 'Em Every Time ...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust View Post
As if the knee/foot were a pivot foot?
It's the old pivot knee trick.

(With apologies to Maxwell Smart, Secret Agent 86.)
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  #33 (permalink)  
Old Thu May 03, 2012, 04:25pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BktBallRef View Post
He doesn't have to get up to travel.

He has to ATTEMPT to get up.

He didn't need to go from his knee to foot to make a pass. Going from knee to foot is is an attempt, whether he actually gets up or not.

That's the NFHS interpretation, not anyone that posts here.


It amazes me some of the things that are debated here sometimes.

+!

Travel, travel, travel every time.
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