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Old Thu Jan 06, 2011, 06:25pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scratch85 View Post
Using this same logic, if both fouls were non-shooting fouls and it was fouls 8 and 9, and we are treating them as fouls that occur simultaneously . . . we would not shoot FTs for either foul.

Am I still thinking clearly?
By rules definition you can't treat them as a simultaneous foul though. That's the point. The only rules definition that fits is a false multiple foul, and if you penalize each foul seperately by rule you would be shooting 2 sets of 1/1's in your situation above. And the calling officials would still have to decide which fouled player shot first()
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