Throw-in question.

[KenThree]

After a successful field goal by Team A and clock running, B1 takes the ball out for a throw-in. B1 holds the ball preparing and the new trail begins a count.

B2 then tells B1 to "leave the ball alone" as Coach B and B1's teammates do not want him inbounding the ball against the press defense. B1 drops/passes the ball in the direction of B2, who is moving from inbounds to out of bounds to make the throw in. As B2 moves out of bounds, the ball bounces three times on the floor. Twice OOB and once inbounds on the final bounce before B2 who is now OOB picks it up.

What do you have?

[mbyron]

OOB violation by B2.

[Mark Padgett]

NF rules - if the ball had not hit inbound prior to B2 grabbing it, there's no violation as long as B2 then throws the ball towards the court before the five second count ends. This would not be the case on a spot throw-in.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by mbyron

OOB violation by B2.

I've got a throwin violation by B1. Failure to make a throwin pass directly onto the court.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by snaqwells

i've got a throwin violation by b1. Failure to make a throwin pass directly onto the court.

+1

[bainsey]

Agreed. You may want to tell B1 and/or B2 that may work in soccer, but not basketball.

[CMHCoachNRef]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

I've got a throwin violation by B1. Failure to make a throwin pass directly onto the court.

After a made basket, he COULD have been passing to B2 (out of bounds). In this case, B1 does NOT have to pass the ball directly into the court -- he can pass to another teammate who is out of bounds. So long as the ball remains out of bounds, it could be a poorly thrown bounce pass. Once it made its way onto the court (and was carried out by B2), the violation occurred.

At least that is my read on the situation.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef

After a made basket, he COULD have been passing to B2 (out of bounds). In this case, B1 does NOT have to pass the ball directly into the court -- he can pass to another teammate who is out of bounds. So long as the ball remains out of bounds, it could be a poorly thrown bounce pass. Once it made its way onto the court (and was carried out by B2), the violation occurred.

At least that is my read on the situation.

He could have been, but he wasn't. Since the pass entered the court, it became a throw-in pass. Since it was not directly onto the the court, it was a violation.

[CMHCoachNRef]

Originally Posted by just another ref

He could have been, but he wasn't. Since the pass entered the court, it became a throw-in pass. Since it was not directly onto the the court, it was a violation.

Not arguing the violation -- merely pointing out that in the case of a throw-in situation after a made goal, the initial throw-in pass does not have to go directly into the court -- unlike other throw-ins.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef

After a made basket, he COULD have been passing to B2 (out of bounds). In this case, B1 does NOT have to pass the ball directly into the court -- he can pass to another teammate who is out of bounds. So long as the ball remains out of bounds, it could be a poorly thrown bounce pass. Once it made its way onto the court (and was carried out by B2), the violation occurred.

At least that is my read on the situation.

Yep, and if the ball had only bounced in the OOB area, it would be ok, but as jar states, once it bounced in bounds, it became an illegal throwin pass.