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Old Mon Nov 15, 2010, 02:53pm
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Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap View Post
A1 releases the ball on a throw-in attempt. B-1 a. deflects ball to A1 who catches it or touches the ball while still standing out of bounds. b. touches the ball while standing out of bounds after B-1's deflected ball hits the floor. c. deflected ball hits the official who is standing out of bounds and then is touched by A1 who is still standing out of bounds.

When is the ball out of bounds? Whose violation is it? Will this horse ever live again?
Different rules, as the OOB violation is for "causing the ball to go OOB." That's not the case for backcourt.

Not if I can help it.
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Old Mon Nov 15, 2010, 03:00pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
Different rules, as the OOB violation is for "causing the ball to go OOB." That's not the case for backcourt.

Not if I can help it.
Not really. If A lets the ball hit the floor, there is no violation. Same in the BC case play.

Mickey Mantle took Billy Martin to a friend of his in TX to do some deer hunting. Billy had always managed to put Mickey on the wrong end of practical jokes. Mickey told Billy to wait outside while he went in to ask permission. Mickey's friend said he could hunt under one condition. He had a mule that needed to be put down and he didn't have the heart to do it. If Mickey would do it, he could hunt.

He went outside and without saying a word, plucked out his rifle and headed to the pen. "What'd he say?", asked Billy. "He said 'no'", Mickey replied and he proceeded to put down the mule with a single shot. Mickey then hears "Blam! Blam! Blam!" and turns around to hear Billy exclaim, "Let's get out of here, I just got 3 of his horses!"
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Old Mon Nov 15, 2010, 03:05pm
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Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap View Post
Not really. If A lets the ball hit the floor, there is no violation. Same in the BC case play.
The difference lies only with the reasoning of the interp; a faulty reliance on the term "cause," which is not in the rule.

Causing the ball to gain BC status is not a violation.
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