Here's one for the newbies

[tjones1]

Originally Posted by Upward ref

let me break down my reasoning, might be less confusing . A1 and B1 both violating make it an AP arrow situation.
if another free throw(or 2) was coming ,they are administered first and then you still have to go to the AP arrow after the FT(s) . thus clearing the lane as there will be no rebounding anyway .
if A1 were to miss the rim again, then ball to B for a throw in ,no Ap situation . I definitely think these might be the correct answers !

6.4.3 Situation A
B1, in a marked lane space, enters the lane prematurely. The administering official properly signals the violation and A1 attempts the free throw. However, A1's attempt doese not enter the basket or touch the ring.

RULING: The violations by B1 and A1 constitute a simultaneous free-throw violation. Unless another free throw follows, play resumes with an alternating-possession throw-in from a designated spot outside the end line.