player control?

[M&M Guy]

Originally Posted by ma_ref

Another scenario:

A1 inbounds the ball to A2 in their front court, who is well behind the 3 point arc, closer to mid-court. A2 catches the ball. He then takes the ball and holds it against his upper thigh (still part of the leg), so he can hold up his other hand to signal an offensive play formation. Forget the questions about the ball between the legs (plural). Nothing in the rule says you need both legs to strike the ball. It only takes 1 leg. Ball is now wedged between the player's leg and hand. Violation? I still say no. But those that have said it is a violation to have the ball between both legs (even if put there on purpose), would have to say yes. Any of them want to admit they'd call a kicking violation on A2?

Isn't the player using his hand to hold the ball against the leg? He's not using his leg to hold the ball against his hand, right? It still goes back to the original basis: is the ball "striking" the leg, or is the leg "striking" the ball?

However, if the player is using both legs, there's no question the leg is being used.