[Spence]

Originally Posted by Spence

Bear with this rookie.

In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.

If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.

What am I not following?

Maybe I found my own answer. Is the difference that in the OP we are talking about a dribble which was touched by the defender in the FC while the ball was NOT touching the offensive player in the BC vs my scenario where the offensive player was holding the ball when it was hit by the defender?